🏠 NEET Home
NEET 2027  ·  Full Syllabus Practice  ·  Aamirah Fathima

Most-Expected Paper — Set 5

Full-syllabus NEET pattern paper built on recurring question types from past NEET papers and the rationalised NCERT syllabus. All 180 questions are compulsory.

Questions
180
Marks
720
Duration
200 min
Marking
+4 / −1
Set
5
Instructions. Attempt all 180 questions. Each correct answer earns +4; each incorrect answer costs −1; unattempted questions score 0. Only one option is correct. Use of calculators is not permitted. Mark the answer sheet before checking the key — leave a question blank only when you truly cannot narrow it to two options.

Physics

Section A  ·  45 questions  ·  180 marks
Q001
The SI unit of luminous intensity is the
  1. (A)Lumen
  2. (B)Lux
  3. (C)Candela
  4. (D)Watt
Units & Dimensions
Q002
A screw gauge has a pitch of 1 mm and 100 divisions on its circular scale. Its least count is
  1. (A)1 mm
  2. (B)0.1 mm
  3. (C)0.01 mm
  4. (D)0.001 mm
Errors & Significant Figures
Q003
A car moving at 20 m s⁻¹ is brought to rest in a distance of 100 m. The uniform retardation is
  1. (A)1 m s⁻²
  2. (B)2 m s⁻²
  3. (C)4 m s⁻²
  4. (D)5 m s⁻²
Kinematics
Q004
A body thrown vertically upwards, at the highest point of its path, has
  1. (A)Zero velocity and zero acceleration
  2. (B)Zero velocity and acceleration g downwards
  3. (C)Maximum velocity and zero acceleration
  4. (D)Zero acceleration and maximum velocity
Kinematics
Q005
Action and reaction forces described by Newton's third law
  1. (A)Act on the same body and cancel out
  2. (B)Act on two different bodies and never cancel
  3. (C)Are unequal in magnitude
  4. (D)Act in the same direction
Laws of Motion
Q006
The propulsion of a rocket is based on the principle of conservation of
  1. (A)Energy
  2. (B)Linear momentum
  3. (C)Angular momentum
  4. (D)Mass
Laws of Motion
Q007
A man of mass 60 kg climbs a staircase of height 5 m in 10 s. His power output is (g = 10 m s⁻²)
  1. (A)30 W
  2. (B)150 W
  3. (C)300 W
  4. (D)3000 W
Work, Energy & Power
Q008
A ball dropped from a height h rebounds to a height h/4. The coefficient of restitution is
  1. (A)0.25
  2. (B)0.5
  3. (C)0.75
  4. (D)1.0
Work, Energy & Power
Q009
A body of moment of inertia 0.5 kg m² rotates with an angular velocity of 4 rad s⁻¹. Its angular momentum is
  1. (A)0.125 kg m² s⁻¹
  2. (B)2 kg m² s⁻¹
  3. (C)4 kg m² s⁻¹
  4. (D)8 kg m² s⁻¹
Rotational Motion
Q010
The rotational kinetic energy of a body of moment of inertia I rotating with angular velocity ω is
  1. (A)Iω
  2. (B)½Iω
  3. (C)½Iω²
  4. (D)Iω²
Rotational Motion
Q011
The relation between escape velocity v_e and orbital velocity v_o for a satellite close to the earth's surface is
  1. (A)v_e = v_o
  2. (B)v_e = √2 v_o
  3. (C)v_e = 2v_o
  4. (D)v_e = v_o/√2
Gravitation
Q012
The gravitational field intensity at a point inside a uniform spherical shell is
  1. (A)Maximum at the centre
  2. (B)Zero everywhere inside
  3. (C)GM/R²
  4. (D)Proportional to the distance from the centre
Gravitation
Q013
In a stress–strain curve, Hooke's law is obeyed up to the
  1. (A)Breaking point
  2. (B)Proportional limit
  3. (C)Yield point
  4. (D)Elastic limit only after yielding
Elasticity
Q014
The viscous force on a small sphere of radius r moving with velocity v through a fluid of viscosity η is given by
  1. (A)6πηrv
  2. (B)4πηr²v
  3. (C)πηrv
  4. (D)6πηr²v
Fluids
Q015
The work done in blowing a soap bubble of radius r and surface tension T is
  1. (A)4πr²T
  2. (B)8πr²T
  3. (C)2πr²T
  4. (D)πr²T
Fluids
Q016
According to Newton's law of cooling, the rate of loss of heat of a body is proportional to
  1. (A)The fourth power of its absolute temperature
  2. (B)The temperature difference between the body and its surroundings
  3. (C)Its specific heat
  4. (D)The square of the temperature difference
Thermal Properties
Q017
A heat engine absorbs 1000 J of heat from the source and rejects 600 J to the sink. Its efficiency is
  1. (A)20%
  2. (B)40%
  3. (C)60%
  4. (D)80%
Thermodynamics
Q018
For an adiabatic process involving an ideal gas, which relation holds?
  1. (A)PV = constant
  2. (B)TV^(γ−1) = constant
  3. (C)P/T = constant
  4. (D)V/T = constant
Thermodynamics
Q019
At constant temperature, the pressure of a given mass of an ideal gas is
  1. (A)Directly proportional to volume
  2. (B)Inversely proportional to volume
  3. (C)Independent of volume
  4. (D)Proportional to the square of the volume
Kinetic Theory
Q020
In simple harmonic motion, the phase difference between displacement and acceleration is
  1. (A)Zero
  2. (B)π/2
  3. (C)π
  4. (D)2π
Oscillations
Q021
Two springs of force constants k₁ and k₂ are joined in series. The effective force constant is
  1. (A)k₁ + k₂
  2. (B)k₁k₂/(k₁ + k₂)
  3. (C)(k₁ + k₂)/k₁k₂
  4. (D)k₁ − k₂
Oscillations
Q022
Two waves of amplitudes 3 cm and 4 cm arrive in phase at a point. The resultant amplitude is
  1. (A)1 cm
  2. (B)5 cm
  3. (C)7 cm
  4. (D)12 cm
Waves
Q023
The intensity level of sound is measured in decibels using a scale that is
  1. (A)Linear in intensity
  2. (B)Logarithmic in intensity
  3. (C)Inversely proportional to intensity
  4. (D)Independent of intensity
Waves
Q024
The torque acting on an electric dipole of moment p placed in a uniform field E is maximum when the angle between p and E is
  1. (A)0°
  2. (B)45°
  3. (C)90°
  4. (D)180°
Electrostatics
Q025
If the net charge enclosed by a closed surface is zero, then
  1. (A)The electric field is zero everywhere on the surface
  2. (B)The net electric flux through the surface is zero
  3. (C)The surface must be spherical
  4. (D)The potential is zero on the surface
Electrostatics
Q026
The charge on a 5 μF capacitor charged to a potential difference of 200 V is
  1. (A)2.5 × 10⁻⁵ C
  2. (B)1 × 10⁻³ C
  3. (C)4 × 10⁻² C
  4. (D)1 × 10³ C
Capacitors
Q027
Which of the following is a non-ohmic device?
  1. (A)A metallic wire at constant temperature
  2. (B)A junction diode
  3. (C)A carbon resistor at constant temperature
  4. (D)A nichrome coil at constant temperature
Current Electricity
Q028
An ideal voltmeter should have
  1. (A)Zero resistance and be connected in series
  2. (B)Infinite resistance and be connected in parallel
  3. (C)Zero resistance and be connected in parallel
  4. (D)Infinite resistance and be connected in series
Current Electricity
Q029
A galvanometer is converted into an ammeter by connecting
  1. (A)A high resistance in series
  2. (B)A low resistance in parallel
  3. (C)A high resistance in parallel
  4. (D)A low resistance in series
Current Electricity
Q030
A straight conductor of length 0.5 m carrying a current of 2 A is placed perpendicular to a magnetic field of 0.1 T. The force on it is
  1. (A)0.01 N
  2. (B)0.1 N
  3. (C)1 N
  4. (D)10 N
Moving Charges & Magnetism
Q031
The magnetic field inside a long current-carrying solenoid is
  1. (A)Zero
  2. (B)Uniform and equal to μ₀nI
  3. (C)Proportional to the distance from the axis
  4. (D)Maximum at the ends
Moving Charges & Magnetism
Q032
A bar magnet of magnetic moment M is cut into two equal halves perpendicular to its length. The magnetic moment of each piece is
  1. (A)M
  2. (B)M/2
  3. (C)2M
  4. (D)M/4
Magnetism & Matter
Q033
The direction of the current induced in a conductor moving in a magnetic field is given by
  1. (A)Fleming's left hand rule
  2. (B)Fleming's right hand rule
  3. (C)Ampere's rule
  4. (D)The right hand thumb rule
Electromagnetic Induction
Q034
Energy loss due to eddy currents in a transformer is reduced by
  1. (A)Using a solid iron core
  2. (B)Using a laminated core
  3. (C)Increasing the number of turns
  4. (D)Using a copper core
Electromagnetic Induction
Q035
In an AC circuit, the power factor is given by
  1. (A)Z/R
  2. (B)R/Z
  3. (C)X_L/R
  4. (D)R X_C
Alternating Current
Q036
The peak voltage of a 220 V AC mains supply is nearly
  1. (A)220 V
  2. (B)156 V
  3. (C)311 V
  4. (D)440 V
Alternating Current
Q037
The speed of electromagnetic waves in free space is given by
  1. (A)√(μ₀ε₀)
  2. (B)1/√(μ₀ε₀)
  3. (C)μ₀ε₀
  4. (D)1/μ₀ε₀
Electromagnetic Waves
Q038
An object is placed 15 cm in front of a concave mirror of focal length 10 cm. The image distance is
  1. (A)6 cm
  2. (B)10 cm
  3. (C)30 cm
  4. (D)60 cm
Ray Optics
Q039
Dispersion of white light by a prism occurs because
  1. (A)The prism absorbs some colours
  2. (B)The refractive index of the prism differs for different wavelengths
  3. (C)Light is polarised by the prism
  4. (D)Of total internal reflection
Ray Optics
Q040
Unpolarised light of intensity I₀ passes through two polaroids whose axes make an angle of 60°. The emergent intensity is
  1. (A)I₀/2
  2. (B)I₀/4
  3. (C)I₀/8
  4. (D)I₀
Wave Optics
Q041
In a diffraction pattern due to a single slit, the width of the central maximum
  1. (A)Increases as the slit is made wider
  2. (B)Decreases as the slit is made wider
  3. (C)Is independent of the slit width
  4. (D)Is zero for monochromatic light
Wave Optics
Q042
The de Broglie wavelength associated with a moving cricket ball is not observed because
  1. (A)The ball is not charged
  2. (B)Its mass is very large, making the wavelength immeasurably small
  3. (C)The ball moves too slowly
  4. (D)Light cannot reach the ball
Dual Nature of Matter
Q043
The energy released in the fission of a single uranium-235 nucleus is about
  1. (A)2 MeV
  2. (B)20 MeV
  3. (C)200 MeV
  4. (D)2000 MeV
Nuclei
Q044
The energy required to ionise a hydrogen atom in its ground state is
  1. (A)3.4 eV
  2. (B)10.2 eV
  3. (C)13.6 eV
  4. (D)27.2 eV
Atoms
Q045
The logic gate whose output is 1 only when both of its inputs are 1 is
  1. (A)OR
  2. (B)AND
  3. (C)NOR
  4. (D)NOT
Semiconductors

Chemistry

Section B  ·  45 questions  ·  180 marks
Q046
The number of atoms present in one mole of oxygen gas, O₂, is
  1. (A)6.022 × 10²³
  2. (B)1.204 × 10²⁴
  3. (C)3.011 × 10²³
  4. (D)2.408 × 10²⁴
Some Basic Concepts
Q047
A solution contains 2 moles of solute in 8 moles of solvent. The mole fraction of the solute is
  1. (A)0.1
  2. (B)0.2
  3. (C)0.25
  4. (D)0.8
Some Basic Concepts
Q048
The energy of a photon is related to the wavelength of radiation by
  1. (A)E = hλ
  2. (B)E = hc/λ
  3. (C)E = h/λ
  4. (D)E = hcλ
Structure of Atom
Q049
Pauli's exclusion principle states that
  1. (A)Electrons occupy orbitals of lowest energy first
  2. (B)No two electrons in an atom can have the same set of four quantum numbers
  3. (C)Electrons pair only after each orbital is singly filled
  4. (D)Electrons revolve in fixed orbits
Structure of Atom
Q050
On moving down a group in the periodic table, the metallic character
  1. (A)Decreases
  2. (B)Increases
  3. (C)Remains unchanged
  4. (D)First increases then decreases
Classification & Periodicity
Q051
An element with the electronic configuration 1s²2s²2p⁶3s¹ is
  1. (A)A halogen
  2. (B)An alkali metal
  3. (C)A noble gas
  4. (D)A transition metal
Classification & Periodicity
Q052
The hybridisation and shape of SF₆ are
  1. (A)sp³d, trigonal bipyramidal
  2. (B)sp³d², octahedral
  3. (C)sp³, tetrahedral
  4. (D)sp², trigonal planar
Chemical Bonding
Q053
Among the following, the bond with the greatest ionic character is
  1. (A)H–H
  2. (B)H–Cl
  3. (C)H–F
  4. (D)H–I
Chemical Bonding
Q054
A sigma bond is stronger than a pi bond because
  1. (A)It is formed by sideways overlap
  2. (B)It is formed by head-on axial overlap giving greater overlap
  3. (C)It involves only s orbitals
  4. (D)It has no directional character
Chemical Bonding
Q055
The bond order of the peroxide ion O₂²⁻ is
  1. (A)1
  2. (B)1.5
  3. (C)2
  4. (D)2.5
Chemical Bonding
Q056
The work done when a gas expands by ΔV against a constant external pressure P is
  1. (A)+PΔV
  2. (B)−PΔV
  3. (C)PΔV/2
  4. (D)Zero
Thermodynamics
Q057
According to the third law of thermodynamics, the entropy of a perfectly crystalline substance at absolute zero is
  1. (A)Infinite
  2. (B)Zero
  3. (C)Negative
  4. (D)Equal to its enthalpy
Thermodynamics
Q058
For an exothermic reaction at equilibrium, an increase in temperature
  1. (A)Shifts the equilibrium in the forward direction
  2. (B)Shifts the equilibrium in the backward direction
  3. (C)Has no effect
  4. (D)Increases the equilibrium constant
Equilibrium
Q059
Among the acids listed, the strongest is the one with a pKa of
  1. (A)2.0
  2. (B)4.8
  3. (C)7.0
  4. (D)9.2
Equilibrium
Q060
Which of the following mixtures forms an acidic buffer?
  1. (A)NH₄OH and NH₄Cl
  2. (B)CH₃COOH and CH₃COONa
  3. (C)NaOH and NaCl
  4. (D)HCl and NaCl
Equilibrium
Q061
The oxidation number of sulphur in H₂SO₄ is
  1. (A)+2
  2. (B)+4
  3. (C)+6
  4. (D)−2
Redox Reactions
Q062
The inductive effect along a carbon chain
  1. (A)Increases with distance from the substituent
  2. (B)Decreases rapidly with distance and is negligible beyond three carbons
  3. (C)Is independent of distance
  4. (D)Operates only through pi bonds
Organic Chemistry – Basic Principles
Q063
Lassaigne's test is used for the detection of
  1. (A)Carbon and hydrogen
  2. (B)Nitrogen, sulphur and halogens
  3. (C)Oxygen only
  4. (D)Double bonds
Organic Chemistry – Basic Principles
Q064
In chromatography, the retardation factor Rf is defined as
  1. (A)Distance moved by solvent/distance moved by substance
  2. (B)Distance moved by substance/distance moved by solvent
  3. (C)Mass of substance/mass of solvent
  4. (D)Time taken by substance/time taken by solvent
Organic Chemistry – Basic Principles
Q065
In ethane, the staggered conformation is more stable than the eclipsed because of
  1. (A)Greater bond length
  2. (B)Lower torsional strain
  3. (C)Stronger hydrogen bonding
  4. (D)Higher symmetry
Hydrocarbons
Q066
But-2-ene exhibits cis–trans isomerism because
  1. (A)It has a chiral carbon
  2. (B)Rotation about the carbon–carbon double bond is restricted
  3. (C)It has a triple bond
  4. (D)It is aromatic
Hydrocarbons
Q067
The nitro group in nitrobenzene directs an incoming electrophile to the
  1. (A)Ortho position only
  2. (B)Para position only
  3. (C)Meta position
  4. (D)Ortho and para positions
Hydrocarbons
Q068
For an ideal solution obeying Raoult's law over the whole range of composition
  1. (A)ΔH_mix > 0 and ΔV_mix > 0
  2. (B)ΔH_mix = 0 and ΔV_mix = 0
  3. (C)ΔH_mix < 0 and ΔV_mix < 0
  4. (D)ΔH_mix = 0 but ΔV_mix > 0
Solutions
Q069
Two solutions are said to be isotonic when they have the same
  1. (A)Molar mass
  2. (B)Osmotic pressure at the same temperature
  3. (C)Density
  4. (D)Vapour pressure at all temperatures
Solutions
Q070
The standard electrode potential of the standard hydrogen electrode is taken as
  1. (A)+1.00 V
  2. (B)0.00 V
  3. (C)−1.00 V
  4. (D)+0.76 V
Electrochemistry
Q071
Galvanisation protects iron from rusting because zinc
  1. (A)Is harder than iron
  2. (B)Has a more negative reduction potential and is oxidised in preference to iron
  3. (C)Forms an unreactive alloy with iron
  4. (D)Prevents contact with water only
Electrochemistry
Q072
The acid hydrolysis of an ester in a large excess of water follows
  1. (A)Zero order kinetics
  2. (B)Pseudo first order kinetics
  3. (C)True second order kinetics
  4. (D)Third order kinetics
Chemical Kinetics
Q073
According to collision theory, an effective collision requires
  1. (A)Only sufficient energy
  2. (B)Sufficient energy and proper orientation of the colliding molecules
  3. (C)Only proper orientation
  4. (D)A catalyst in all cases
Chemical Kinetics
Q074
Transition elements show variable oxidation states because
  1. (A)Their atomic radii are large
  2. (B)The energies of the ns and (n − 1)d orbitals are comparable
  3. (C)They are all paramagnetic
  4. (D)They form coloured compounds
d- and f-Block Elements
Q075
On adding alkali to an orange solution of potassium dichromate, the colour changes to
  1. (A)Blue, forming chromium(II)
  2. (B)Yellow, forming the chromate ion
  3. (C)Green, forming Cr³⁺
  4. (D)Colourless
d- and f-Block Elements
Q076
Compared with lanthanoids, actinoids show
  1. (A)Fewer oxidation states
  2. (B)A larger number of oxidation states
  3. (C)No radioactivity
  4. (D)No contraction in size
d- and f-Block Elements
Q077
The number of ions furnished in aqueous solution by [Co(NH₃)₆]Cl₃ is
  1. (A)2
  2. (B)3
  3. (C)4
  4. (D)6
Coordination Compounds
Q078
Optical isomerism is shown by
  1. (A)[Co(NH₃)₆]³⁺
  2. (B)[Co(en)₃]³⁺
  3. (C)[PtCl₄]²⁻
  4. (D)[Ni(CO)₄]
Coordination Compounds
Q079
The IUPAC name of [Ni(CO)₄] is
  1. (A)Nickel tetracarbonyl(II)
  2. (B)Tetracarbonylnickel(0)
  3. (C)Tetracarbonylnickelate(0)
  4. (D)Nickel(IV) carbonyl
Coordination Compounds
Q080
A Grignard reagent must be prepared and handled under anhydrous conditions because it
  1. (A)Is explosive in air
  2. (B)Reacts readily with water to give an alkane
  3. (C)Decomposes in sunlight
  4. (D)Polymerises in water
Haloalkanes & Haloarenes
Q081
Iodoform, CHI₃, was formerly used as
  1. (A)A refrigerant
  2. (B)An antiseptic
  3. (C)A fire extinguisher
  4. (D)An anaesthetic
Haloalkanes & Haloarenes
Q082
Phenol can be distinguished from ethanol by using
  1. (A)Sodium metal
  2. (B)Neutral ferric chloride solution
  3. (C)Lucas reagent
  4. (D)Bromine in carbon tetrachloride
Alcohols, Phenols & Ethers
Q083
Cleavage of methoxyethane with hot concentrated HI gives
  1. (A)Methanol and iodoethane
  2. (B)Iodomethane and ethanol
  3. (C)Two molecules of methanol
  4. (D)Ethene and methanol
Alcohols, Phenols & Ethers
Q084
The Etard reaction converts toluene into benzaldehyde using
  1. (A)Acidified KMnO₄
  2. (B)Chromyl chloride
  3. (C)Ozone
  4. (D)Zinc dust
Aldehydes, Ketones & Carboxylic Acids
Q085
The correct order of acidic strength among ethanol, phenol and ethanoic acid is
  1. (A)Ethanol > phenol > ethanoic acid
  2. (B)Ethanoic acid > phenol > ethanol
  3. (C)Phenol > ethanoic acid > ethanol
  4. (D)Ethanoic acid > ethanol > phenol
Aldehydes, Ketones & Carboxylic Acids
Q086
Rosenmund reduction of an acyl chloride gives
  1. (A)A primary alcohol
  2. (B)An aldehyde
  3. (C)A ketone
  4. (D)An alkane
Aldehydes, Ketones & Carboxylic Acids
Q087
Hofmann bromamide degradation of an amide produces a primary amine having
  1. (A)The same number of carbon atoms
  2. (B)One carbon atom less
  3. (C)One carbon atom more
  4. (D)Two carbon atoms less
Amines
Q088
Reduction of nitrobenzene with tin and concentrated hydrochloric acid gives
  1. (A)Nitrosobenzene
  2. (B)Aniline
  3. (C)Phenol
  4. (D)Azobenzene
Amines
Q089
Enzymes that are made of RNA rather than protein are called
  1. (A)Coenzymes
  2. (B)Ribozymes
  3. (C)Apoenzymes
  4. (D)Holoenzymes
Biomolecules
Q090
Starch is a mixture of
  1. (A)Amylose and amylopectin
  2. (B)Glucose and fructose
  3. (C)Cellulose and glycogen
  4. (D)Maltose and lactose
Biomolecules

Botany

Section C  ·  45 questions  ·  180 marks
Q091
Any unit of classification representing a real group of organisms at any level is called a
  1. (A)Species
  2. (B)Taxon
  3. (C)Genus
  4. (D)Key
The Living World
Q092
Genetic material is transferred between bacteria without the formation of gametes during
  1. (A)Binary fission
  2. (B)Conjugation
  3. (C)Endospore formation
  4. (D)Budding
Biological Classification
Q093
The cell wall of diatoms is made of
  1. (A)Cellulose
  2. (B)Indestructible silica forming a soapbox-like structure
  3. (C)Chitin
  4. (D)Pectin
Biological Classification
Q094
The crystalline nature of tobacco mosaic virus was demonstrated by
  1. (A)Ivanowsky
  2. (B)M. W. Beijerinck
  3. (C)W. M. Stanley
  4. (D)Diener
Biological Classification
Q095
The red colour of Rhodophyceae is due to the pigment
  1. (A)Fucoxanthin
  2. (B)r-Phycoerythrin
  3. (C)Phycocyanin
  4. (D)Chlorophyll b
Plant Kingdom
Q096
Which of the following is a characteristic of monocotyledons?
  1. (A)Two cotyledons and reticulate venation
  2. (B)One cotyledon and parallel venation
  3. (C)Two cotyledons and parallel venation
  4. (D)One cotyledon and tetramerous flowers
Plant Kingdom
Q097
A fibrous root system, in which the primary root is short lived and replaced by many roots, is characteristic of
  1. (A)Mustard
  2. (B)Wheat
  3. (C)Gram
  4. (D)Banyan
Morphology of Flowering Plants
Q098
Neem shows a leaf that is
  1. (A)Simple
  2. (B)Pinnately compound
  3. (C)Palmately compound
  4. (D)Sessile and simple
Morphology of Flowering Plants
Q099
A flower that can be divided into two equal halves by only one particular vertical plane is
  1. (A)Actinomorphic
  2. (B)Zygomorphic
  3. (C)Asymmetric
  4. (D)Trimerous
Morphology of Flowering Plants
Q100
The three tissue systems of a flowering plant are
  1. (A)Epidermal, ground and vascular
  2. (B)Meristematic, permanent and secondary
  3. (C)Dermal, cortical and medullary
  4. (D)Simple, complex and secretory
Anatomy of Flowering Plants
Q101
Trichomes present on the stem differ from root hairs in being
  1. (A)Unicellular
  2. (B)Multicellular and often branched
  3. (C)Non-living
  4. (D)Absorptive in function
Anatomy of Flowering Plants
Q102
In the leaves of C₄ plants, the bundle sheath cells are
  1. (A)Absent
  2. (B)Large, thick walled with no intercellular spaces
  3. (C)Thin walled with many intercellular spaces
  4. (D)Present only in the midrib
Anatomy of Flowering Plants
Q103
Cytoplasmic connections between adjacent plant cells through the cell wall are called
  1. (A)Desmosomes
  2. (B)Plasmodesmata
  3. (C)Gap junctions
  4. (D)Tight junctions
Cell: The Unit of Life
Q104
The membrane bounding the large central vacuole of a mature plant cell is the
  1. (A)Plasmalemma
  2. (B)Tonoplast
  3. (C)Thylakoid membrane
  4. (D)Nuclear envelope
Cell: The Unit of Life
Q105
Which organelle is a site of β-oxidation of fatty acids and contains oxidative enzymes?
  1. (A)Ribosome
  2. (B)Peroxisome
  3. (C)Golgi body
  4. (D)Centriole
Cell: The Unit of Life
Q106
Substances of low molecular weight found in the acid soluble fraction of a cell are called
  1. (A)Macromolecules
  2. (B)Micromolecules or metabolites
  3. (C)Polymers
  4. (D)Enzymes
Biomolecules
Q107
A non-protein organic compound tightly bound to an enzyme and essential for its activity is called a
  1. (A)Substrate
  2. (B)Prosthetic group
  3. (C)Competitive inhibitor
  4. (D)Product
Biomolecules
Q108
Mitosis is described as an equational division because
  1. (A)The chromosome number is halved
  2. (B)The chromosome number in the daughter cells remains the same as in the parent
  3. (C)DNA is not replicated
  4. (D)Four daughter cells are formed
Cell Cycle & Cell Division
Q109
One diploid cell undergoing meiosis produces
  1. (A)Two diploid cells
  2. (B)Two haploid cells
  3. (C)Four haploid cells
  4. (D)Four diploid cells
Cell Cycle & Cell Division
Q110
A graph of the rate of photosynthesis plotted against the wavelength of light is called the
  1. (A)Absorption spectrum
  2. (B)Action spectrum
  3. (C)Emission spectrum
  4. (D)Fluorescence spectrum
Photosynthesis
Q111
The light reaction and the biosynthetic phase of photosynthesis take place respectively in the
  1. (A)Stroma and thylakoid
  2. (B)Thylakoid membranes and stroma
  3. (C)Both in the stroma
  4. (D)Both in the thylakoid
Photosynthesis
Q112
Engelmann's experiment, which described the first action spectrum of photosynthesis, used
  1. (A)Chlorella and oxygen electrodes
  2. (B)Cladophora and aerobic bacteria
  3. (C)Hydrilla in bicarbonate
  4. (D)Isolated chloroplasts
Photosynthesis
Q113
Oxidation of one molecule of NADH in the electron transport system yields about
  1. (A)1 ATP
  2. (B)2 ATP
  3. (C)3 ATP
  4. (D)5 ATP
Respiration in Plants
Q114
In skeletal muscle under oxygen deficiency, pyruvic acid is converted into
  1. (A)Ethanol
  2. (B)Lactic acid
  3. (C)Acetyl CoA
  4. (D)Citric acid
Respiration in Plants
Q115
Plants that flower only when exposed to a light period shorter than a critical duration are called
  1. (A)Long day plants
  2. (B)Short day plants
  3. (C)Day neutral plants
  4. (D)Vernalised plants
Plant Growth & Development
Q116
Abscisic acid is called the stress hormone because it
  1. (A)Promotes cell division
  2. (B)Stimulates stomatal closure and induces dormancy
  3. (C)Causes bolting
  4. (D)Delays senescence
Plant Growth & Development
Q117
A pollen grain at the time of shedding in most angiosperms is
  1. (A)Single celled
  2. (B)Two celled with a vegetative and a generative cell
  3. (C)Four celled
  4. (D)Always three celled
Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants
Q118
Wind pollinated flowers are typically characterised by
  1. (A)Large brightly coloured petals and nectar
  2. (B)Well exposed stamens and large feathery stigmas
  3. (C)Sticky heavy pollen
  4. (D)Strong fragrance
Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants
Q119
Pollination by water is seen in
  1. (A)Vallisneria and Zostera
  2. (B)Salvia and Yucca
  3. (C)Wheat and maize
  4. (D)Hibiscus and rose
Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants
Q120
The advantage of the seed habit in angiosperms is that
  1. (A)Seeds always germinate immediately
  2. (B)The embryo is protected and provided with reserve food for dispersal
  3. (C)Seeds prevent genetic variation
  4. (D)Seeds eliminate the need for pollination
Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants
Q121
Mendel selected the garden pea for his experiments mainly because it
  1. (A)Is a perennial with a long life cycle
  2. (B)Has several contrasting traits, is self pollinating and has a short life cycle
  3. (C)Shows only continuous variation
  4. (D)Cannot be artificially cross pollinated
Principles of Inheritance
Q122
The law of independent assortment holds good for genes that are
  1. (A)On the same chromosome and closely linked
  2. (B)On different chromosomes or far apart on the same chromosome
  3. (C)Always dominant
  4. (D)Sex linked only
Principles of Inheritance
Q123
Thalassemia differs from sickle cell anaemia in that thalassemia is
  1. (A)A qualitative defect in globin chain structure
  2. (B)A quantitative defect in the synthesis of globin chains
  3. (C)Caused by a single base substitution
  4. (D)Not inherited
Principles of Inheritance
Q124
Insertion or deletion of a single base pair in a gene causes
  1. (A)A point mutation with no effect
  2. (B)A frameshift mutation altering the reading frame
  3. (C)Chromosomal aberration
  4. (D)Polyploidy
Principles of Inheritance
Q125
In birds, the female is
  1. (A)Homogametic, ZZ
  2. (B)Heterogametic, ZW
  3. (C)Homogametic, XX
  4. (D)Heterogametic, XO
Principles of Inheritance
Q126
Hershey and Chase distinguished DNA from protein in bacteriophages by using radioactive
  1. (A)Carbon and nitrogen
  2. (B)Sulphur and phosphorus
  3. (C)Nitrogen and oxygen
  4. (D)Hydrogen and carbon
Molecular Basis of Inheritance
Q127
The central dogma of molecular biology was proposed by
  1. (A)Watson
  2. (B)Crick
  3. (C)Nirenberg
  4. (D)Khorana
Molecular Basis of Inheritance
Q128
The initiation codon AUG codes for the amino acid
  1. (A)Tryptophan
  2. (B)Methionine
  3. (C)Alanine
  4. (D)Glycine
Molecular Basis of Inheritance
Q129
Satellite DNA, useful in DNA fingerprinting, is
  1. (A)A coding sequence
  2. (B)A repetitive non-coding sequence showing high polymorphism
  3. (C)Present only in mitochondria
  4. (D)A regulatory promoter
Molecular Basis of Inheritance
Q130
Organisms that can tolerate and thrive in a wide range of temperatures are described as
  1. (A)Stenothermal
  2. (B)Eurythermal
  3. (C)Stenohaline
  4. (D)Euryhaline
Organisms & Populations
Q131
Polar bears undergo winter sleep, while snails and fish in summer enter a state of reduced activity called
  1. (A)Hibernation
  2. (B)Aestivation
  3. (C)Diapause
  4. (D)Migration
Organisms & Populations
Q132
In a deep water aquatic ecosystem, the major conduit of energy flow is the
  1. (A)Detritus food chain
  2. (B)Grazing food chain
  3. (C)Parasitic chain
  4. (D)Saprophytic chain
Ecosystem
Q133
The pyramid of numbers in a single large tree supporting many insects and birds is
  1. (A)Upright
  2. (B)Inverted
  3. (C)Spindle shaped
  4. (D)Always linear
Ecosystem
Q134
Diversity at the level of the genes within a single species, such as Rauwolfia vomitoria growing in different Himalayan ranges, is called
  1. (A)Species diversity
  2. (B)Genetic diversity
  3. (C)Ecological diversity
  4. (D)Taxonomic diversity
Biodiversity & Conservation
Q135
The Amazon rainforest is often called the lungs of the planet because it
  1. (A)Absorbs all the world's rainfall
  2. (B)Is estimated to produce a large share of the earth's oxygen through photosynthesis
  3. (C)Contains no animal life
  4. (D)Has the coldest climate
Biodiversity & Conservation

Zoology

Section D  ·  45 questions  ·  180 marks
Q136
In sponges, water enters through minute pores called ostia into the
  1. (A)Osculum
  2. (B)Spongocoel
  3. (C)Coelom
  4. (D)Gastrovascular cavity
Animal Kingdom
Q137
Eight external rows of ciliated comb plates used in locomotion are characteristic of
  1. (A)Porifera
  2. (B)Cnidaria
  3. (C)Ctenophora
  4. (D)Annelida
Animal Kingdom
Q138
Bony fishes differ from cartilaginous fishes in having
  1. (A)A ventral mouth
  2. (B)Gill slits without an operculum
  3. (C)Gills covered by an operculum and an air bladder
  4. (D)A placoid scaled skin
Animal Kingdom
Q139
Heterodont dentition, in which teeth are of different types, is characteristic of
  1. (A)Amphibians
  2. (B)Reptiles
  3. (C)Birds
  4. (D)Mammals
Animal Kingdom
Q140
Neuroglial cells of nervous tissue
  1. (A)Transmit nerve impulses
  2. (B)Protect and support the neurons
  3. (C)Secrete hormones
  4. (D)Contract like muscle
Structural Organisation in Animals
Q141
In the cockroach, hepatic caeca are found at the junction of the
  1. (A)Foregut and midgut
  2. (B)Midgut and hindgut
  3. (C)Crop and gizzard
  4. (D)Ileum and colon
Structural Organisation in Animals
Q142
Inspiratory capacity is equal to
  1. (A)Tidal volume + expiratory reserve volume
  2. (B)Tidal volume + inspiratory reserve volume
  3. (C)Vital capacity + residual volume
  4. (D)Inspiratory reserve volume + residual volume
Breathing & Exchange of Gases
Q143
Asthma is characterised by
  1. (A)Damage to alveolar walls
  2. (B)Difficulty in breathing due to inflammation of the bronchi and bronchioles
  3. (C)Fibrosis of the upper lung
  4. (D)Loss of the pleural membrane
Breathing & Exchange of Gases
Q144
Purkinje fibres are specialised to
  1. (A)Generate the initial impulse
  2. (B)Conduct impulses rapidly throughout the ventricular musculature
  3. (C)Secrete hormones
  4. (D)Prevent backflow of blood
Body Fluids & Circulation
Q145
Erythroblastosis foetalis occurs when
  1. (A)An Rh positive mother carries an Rh negative foetus
  2. (B)An Rh negative mother carries an Rh positive foetus
  3. (C)Both mother and foetus are Rh negative
  4. (D)Both mother and foetus are Rh positive
Body Fluids & Circulation
Q146
Angina pectoris is caused by
  1. (A)Inflammation of the pericardium
  2. (B)Insufficient oxygen reaching the heart muscle
  3. (C)Failure of the SA node
  4. (D)Excess of platelets
Body Fluids & Circulation
Q147
The distal convoluted tubule is important for
  1. (A)Filtration of blood
  2. (B)Selective secretion of H⁺ and K⁺ and reabsorption of bicarbonate
  3. (C)Concentration of urine only
  4. (D)Storage of urine
Excretory Products
Q148
Which of the following acts as an accessory excretory organ in humans?
  1. (A)Liver only
  2. (B)Lungs and skin
  3. (C)Pancreas
  4. (D)Spleen
Excretory Products
Q149
The globular head of the myosin filament is important because it
  1. (A)Binds calcium ions
  2. (B)Acts as an ATPase and forms cross bridges with actin
  3. (C)Stores oxygen
  4. (D)Anchors the Z line
Locomotion & Movement
Q150
The pelvic girdle of each side consists of the
  1. (A)Ilium, ischium and pubis fused at the acetabulum
  2. (B)Clavicle and scapula
  3. (C)Sternum and ribs
  4. (D)Humerus and radius
Locomotion & Movement
Q151
The first seven pairs of ribs, attached directly to the sternum, are called
  1. (A)Floating ribs
  2. (B)Vertebrochondral ribs
  3. (C)True or vertebrosternal ribs
  4. (D)Cervical ribs
Locomotion & Movement
Q152
In the peripheral nervous system, the myelin sheath around an axon is produced by
  1. (A)Astrocytes
  2. (B)Schwann cells
  3. (C)Oligodendrocytes
  4. (D)Microglia
Neural Control & Coordination
Q153
The corpora quadrigemina, four round swellings on the dorsal side, are located in the
  1. (A)Forebrain
  2. (B)Midbrain
  3. (C)Hindbrain
  4. (D)Spinal cord
Neural Control & Coordination
Q154
Receptors for taste and smell are
  1. (A)Photoreceptors
  2. (B)Mechanoreceptors
  3. (C)Chemoreceptors
  4. (D)Thermoreceptors
Neural Control & Coordination
Q155
Thyroxine differs from most other hormones in that it
  1. (A)Is a steroid
  2. (B)Contains iodine and regulates the basal metabolic rate
  3. (C)Is secreted by the pancreas
  4. (D)Acts only on bone
Chemical Coordination
Q156
Secretin and cholecystokinin are hormones secreted by the
  1. (A)Stomach only
  2. (B)Mucosa of the small intestine
  3. (C)Adrenal cortex
  4. (D)Liver
Chemical Coordination
Q157
Cortisol produces anti-inflammatory reactions and
  1. (A)Stimulates the immune response
  2. (B)Suppresses the immune response
  3. (C)Lowers blood glucose
  4. (D)Reduces blood pressure
Chemical Coordination
Q158
The correct path of sperm transport is
  1. (A)Rete testis, vasa efferentia, epididymis, vas deferens
  2. (B)Vas deferens, epididymis, rete testis, urethra
  3. (C)Epididymis, rete testis, vasa efferentia, vas deferens
  4. (D)Vasa efferentia, vas deferens, epididymis, rete testis
Human Reproduction
Q159
At ovulation, the structure actually released from the Graafian follicle is the
  1. (A)Primary oocyte
  2. (B)Secondary oocyte
  3. (C)Mature ovum
  4. (D)Oogonium
Human Reproduction
Q160
Implantation of the blastocyst in the uterine wall normally occurs about
  1. (A)1 day after fertilisation
  2. (B)7 days after fertilisation
  3. (C)21 days after fertilisation
  4. (D)3 months after fertilisation
Human Reproduction
Q161
By the end of the second month of pregnancy, the foetus
  1. (A)Has fully developed lungs
  2. (B)Develops limbs and digits
  3. (C)Shows first movements and hair on the head
  4. (D)Is ready for delivery
Human Reproduction
Q162
Emergency contraceptives are effective if used within
  1. (A)12 hours of coitus
  2. (B)72 hours of coitus
  3. (C)one week of coitus
  4. (D)one month of coitus
Reproductive Health
Q163
Amniocentesis, when used legitimately, helps to detect
  1. (A)The sex of the foetus for selection
  2. (B)Chromosomal abnormalities and metabolic disorders in the foetus
  3. (C)The blood group of the mother
  4. (D)Ovulation time
Reproductive Health
Q164
The Reproductive and Child Health Care programmes aim mainly at
  1. (A)Increasing the birth rate
  2. (B)Creating awareness and providing facilities for reproductive health
  3. (C)Restricting medical termination of pregnancy
  4. (D)Promoting early marriage
Reproductive Health
Q165
The two key concepts of Darwinian theory are
  1. (A)Use and disuse, and inheritance of acquired characters
  2. (B)Branching descent and natural selection
  3. (C)Saltation and mutation
  4. (D)Genetic drift and gene flow
Evolution
Q166
Hugo de Vries proposed that evolution proceeds by large, sudden, single-step changes called
  1. (A)Gradual variations
  2. (B)Saltation caused by mutation
  3. (C)Adaptive radiation
  4. (D)Convergence
Evolution
Q167
Fossils, which provide direct evidence of evolution, are found mainly in
  1. (A)Igneous rocks
  2. (B)Sedimentary rocks
  3. (C)Metamorphic rocks
  4. (D)Volcanic ash only
Evolution
Q168
Which of the following is a vestigial organ in humans?
  1. (A)The femur
  2. (B)The vermiform appendix
  3. (C)The heart
  4. (D)The diaphragm
Evolution
Q169
Reproductive isolation between two populations leads to
  1. (A)Gene flow
  2. (B)Speciation
  3. (C)Genetic equilibrium
  4. (D)Hybridisation
Evolution
Q170
The common cold, caused by rhino viruses, infects
  1. (A)The lungs
  2. (B)The nose and respiratory passage but not the lungs
  3. (C)The intestine
  4. (D)The liver
Human Health & Disease
Q171
Ringworm is caused by fungi belonging to the genera
  1. (A)Microsporum, Trichophyton and Epidermophyton
  2. (B)Candida and Aspergillus
  3. (C)Entamoeba and Giardia
  4. (D)Salmonella and Streptococcus
Human Health & Disease
Q172
The primary lymphoid organs of the human body are
  1. (A)Spleen and lymph nodes
  2. (B)Bone marrow and thymus
  3. (C)Tonsils and appendix
  4. (D)Peyer's patches and spleen
Human Health & Disease
Q173
Rheumatoid arthritis is an example of
  1. (A)An allergy
  2. (B)An autoimmune disease
  3. (C)An immunodeficiency
  4. (D)A viral infection
Human Health & Disease
Q174
A malignant tumour of the connective tissue such as bone or muscle is called a
  1. (A)Carcinoma
  2. (B)Sarcoma
  3. (C)Leukaemia
  4. (D)Lymphoma
Human Health & Disease
Q175
Nicotine present in tobacco stimulates the adrenal medulla to release
  1. (A)Insulin
  2. (B)Adrenaline and noradrenaline
  3. (C)Thyroxine
  4. (D)Melatonin
Human Health & Disease
Q176
Restriction endonucleases are described as molecular scissors, while the molecular glue used to join DNA fragments is
  1. (A)DNA polymerase
  2. (B)DNA ligase
  3. (C)Primase
  4. (D)Helicase
Biotechnology – Principles
Q177
A good cloning vector must possess
  1. (A)Only an origin of replication
  2. (B)An origin of replication, a selectable marker and suitable restriction sites
  3. (C)Only antibiotic resistance genes
  4. (D)A large size for easy handling
Biotechnology – Principles
Q178
The biolistic or gene gun method is used to introduce foreign DNA into
  1. (A)Animal cells only
  2. (B)Plant cells, by bombardment with DNA coated gold or tungsten particles
  3. (C)Bacteria only
  4. (D)Viruses
Biotechnology – Principles
Q179
Transgenic mice are used in the biotechnology industry mainly to
  1. (A)Produce milk in bulk
  2. (B)Test the safety of vaccines before they are used on humans
  3. (C)Produce antibiotics
  4. (D)Digest oil spills
Biotechnology – Applications
Q180
The use of bio-resources by multinational companies without authorisation or compensatory payment is called
  1. (A)Bioremediation
  2. (B)Biopiracy
  3. (C)Biofortification
  4. (D)Bioaugmentation
Biotechnology – Applications