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Most-Expected Paper — Set 4

Full-syllabus NEET pattern paper built on recurring question types from past NEET papers and the rationalised NCERT syllabus. All 180 questions are compulsory.

Questions
180
Marks
720
Duration
200 min
Marking
+4 / −1
Set
4
Instructions. Attempt all 180 questions. Each correct answer earns +4; each incorrect answer costs −1; unattempted questions score 0. Only one option is correct. Use of calculators is not permitted. Mark the answer sheet before checking the key — leave a question blank only when you truly cannot narrow it to two options.

Physics

Section A  ·  45 questions  ·  180 marks
Q001
Which of the following is NOT a unit of energy?
  1. (A)Joule
  2. (B)Erg
  3. (C)Electron volt
  4. (D)Watt
Units & Dimensions
Q002
The zero error of a vernier callipers gives rise to
  1. (A)Random error
  2. (B)Systematic error
  3. (C)Gross error
  4. (D)No error
Errors & Significant Figures
Q003
A body moves along a circular track of radius r and completes half a revolution. The distance travelled and the magnitude of displacement are respectively
  1. (A)πr and 2r
  2. (B)2r and πr
  3. (C)πr and r
  4. (D)2πr and 2r
Kinematics
Q004
A stone is thrown horizontally from the top of a tower. The time taken to reach the ground
  1. (A)Increases with the horizontal speed
  2. (B)Decreases with the horizontal speed
  3. (C)Is independent of the horizontal speed
  4. (D)Depends on the mass of the stone
Kinematics
Q005
A block rests on a rough table and a horizontal force smaller than the limiting friction is applied. The frictional force acting on the block is
  1. (A)Equal to the limiting friction
  2. (B)Equal to the applied force
  3. (C)Zero
  4. (D)μmg always
Laws of Motion
Q006
The minimum speed of a body at the highest point of a vertical circle of radius r so that the string remains taut is
  1. (A)√(2gr)
  2. (B)√(gr)
  3. (C)√(5gr)
  4. (D)√(gr/2)
Laws of Motion
Q007
A force F = (5î + 3ĵ) N produces a displacement d = (2î + 4ĵ) m. The work done is
  1. (A)10 J
  2. (B)12 J
  3. (C)22 J
  4. (D)30 J
Work, Energy & Power
Q008
For a conservative force, the work done in moving a body around any closed path is
  1. (A)Maximum
  2. (B)Zero
  3. (C)Negative always
  4. (D)Equal to the change in kinetic energy
Work, Energy & Power
Q009
The torque produced by a force whose line of action passes through the axis of rotation is
  1. (A)Maximum
  2. (B)Zero
  3. (C)Equal to Fr
  4. (D)Equal to Iα
Rotational Motion
Q010
The moment of inertia of a solid sphere of mass M and radius R about a tangent is
  1. (A)(2/5)MR²
  2. (B)(3/5)MR²
  3. (C)(7/5)MR²
  4. (D)(5/2)MR²
Rotational Motion
Q011
The gravitational potential energy of two masses m₁ and m₂ separated by a distance r is
  1. (A)+Gm₁m₂/r
  2. (B)−Gm₁m₂/r
  3. (C)−Gm₁m₂/r²
  4. (D)Gm₁m₂r
Gravitation
Q012
An astronaut inside an orbiting space station feels weightless because
  1. (A)Gravity is absent at that height
  2. (B)The station and astronaut are both in free fall with the same acceleration
  3. (C)The station is far from the earth
  4. (D)Air resistance balances gravity
Gravitation
Q013
Steel is said to be more elastic than rubber because for the same stress steel shows
  1. (A)Greater strain
  2. (B)Smaller strain and hence a larger Young's modulus
  3. (C)A lower breaking point
  4. (D)Greater plastic deformation
Elasticity
Q014
In a hydraulic lift, the area of the larger piston is 100 times that of the smaller one. A force of 20 N on the smaller piston can lift a load of
  1. (A)20 N
  2. (B)200 N
  3. (C)2000 N
  4. (D)0.2 N
Fluids
Q015
The nature of flow of a liquid through a pipe, whether streamline or turbulent, is decided by
  1. (A)Bernoulli's number
  2. (B)Reynolds number
  3. (C)Poisson's ratio
  4. (D)Mach number
Fluids
Q016
According to Wien's displacement law, as the temperature of a black body increases, the wavelength corresponding to maximum emission
  1. (A)Increases
  2. (B)Decreases
  3. (C)Remains the same
  4. (D)First increases then decreases
Thermal Properties
Q017
The second law of thermodynamics implies that
  1. (A)Energy can be created
  2. (B)No heat engine can have 100% efficiency
  3. (C)Heat flows spontaneously from cold to hot bodies
  4. (D)Entropy always decreases
Thermodynamics
Q018
For an ideal gas undergoing an isothermal change, the change in internal energy is
  1. (A)Positive
  2. (B)Negative
  3. (C)Zero
  4. (D)Equal to the heat rejected
Thermodynamics
Q019
The mean free path of a gas molecule is
  1. (A)Directly proportional to the number density
  2. (B)Inversely proportional to the number density
  3. (C)Independent of molecular diameter
  4. (D)Proportional to the square of the pressure
Kinetic Theory
Q020
For an ideal gas, the relation between the molar heat capacities is
  1. (A)C_p − C_v = R
  2. (B)C_v − C_p = R
  3. (C)C_p + C_v = R
  4. (D)C_p C_v = R
Kinetic Theory
Q021
In damped harmonic motion, the amplitude of oscillation
  1. (A)Remains constant
  2. (B)Decreases exponentially with time
  3. (C)Increases with time
  4. (D)Becomes zero instantly
Oscillations
Q022
A simple pendulum is taken to the moon, where the acceleration due to gravity is one sixth that on earth. Its time period becomes
  1. (A)Six times
  2. (B)√6 times
  3. (C)One sixth
  4. (D)1/√6 times
Oscillations
Q023
Sound waves in air are
  1. (A)Transverse and can be polarised
  2. (B)Longitudinal and cannot be polarised
  3. (C)Electromagnetic
  4. (D)Transverse and cannot be polarised
Waves
Q024
An observer moves away from a stationary source of sound. The apparent frequency heard
  1. (A)Increases
  2. (B)Decreases
  3. (C)Remains the same
  4. (D)First increases then decreases
Waves
Q025
The quantisation of charge means that
  1. (A)Charge can have any value
  2. (B)Charge exists only as an integral multiple of e
  3. (C)Charge can be destroyed
  4. (D)Charge depends on the medium
Electrostatics
Q026
The electric field due to an infinite plane sheet of charge density σ is
  1. (A)σ/ε₀ and depends on distance
  2. (B)σ/2ε₀ and independent of distance
  3. (C)σ/4πε₀r²
  4. (D)Zero
Electrostatics
Q027
Capacitors of 2 μF and 3 μF are connected in parallel. The equivalent capacitance is
  1. (A)1.2 μF
  2. (B)1.5 μF
  3. (C)5 μF
  4. (D)6 μF
Capacitors
Q028
While a cell is being charged, the terminal potential difference is
  1. (A)Less than the emf
  2. (B)Greater than the emf
  3. (C)Equal to the emf
  4. (D)Zero
Current Electricity
Q029
With rise in temperature, the resistance of a metallic conductor
  1. (A)Decreases
  2. (B)Increases
  3. (C)Remains constant
  4. (D)Becomes zero
Current Electricity
Q030
The magnetic field at the centre of a semicircular arc of radius R carrying current I is
  1. (A)μ₀I/2R
  2. (B)μ₀I/4R
  3. (C)μ₀I/2πR
  4. (D)μ₀I/4πR
Moving Charges & Magnetism
Q031
Ampere's circuital law relates the line integral of the magnetic field around a closed loop to
  1. (A)The magnetic flux through the loop
  2. (B)The net current enclosed by the loop
  3. (C)The area of the loop
  4. (D)The emf induced
Moving Charges & Magnetism
Q032
At the magnetic equator, the angle of dip is
  1. (A)0°
  2. (B)45°
  3. (C)90°
  4. (D)180°
Magnetism & Matter
Q033
The energy stored in an inductor of inductance L carrying a current I is
  1. (A)LI
  2. (B)½LI²
  3. (C)½L²I
  4. (D)LI²
Electromagnetic Induction
Q034
In an AC generator with N turns, area A, rotating with angular frequency ω in a field B, the peak emf is
  1. (A)NAB
  2. (B)NABω
  3. (C)NAB/ω
  4. (D)NABω²
Electromagnetic Induction
Q035
The resonant frequency of a series LCR circuit with L = 1 H and C = 1 μF is nearly
  1. (A)50 Hz
  2. (B)159 Hz
  3. (C)1000 Hz
  4. (D)6280 Hz
Alternating Current
Q036
A choke coil is preferred to a resistor for controlling current in an AC circuit because it
  1. (A)Is cheaper
  2. (B)Reduces current without dissipating power
  3. (C)Increases the power factor to unity
  4. (D)Produces more heat
Alternating Current
Q037
Displacement current arises because of
  1. (A)A steady conduction current
  2. (B)A time varying electric field
  3. (C)A constant magnetic field
  4. (D)Motion of free charges only
Electromagnetic Waves
Q038
Optical fibres transmit light by making use of
  1. (A)Dispersion
  2. (B)Total internal reflection
  3. (C)Diffraction
  4. (D)Polarisation
Ray Optics
Q039
Myopia, or short-sightedness, is corrected by using
  1. (A)A convex lens
  2. (B)A concave lens
  3. (C)A cylindrical lens
  4. (D)A bifocal lens
Ray Optics
Q040
According to Huygens' principle, every point on a wavefront acts as
  1. (A)A source of secondary wavelets
  2. (B)A point of destructive interference
  3. (C)A polarising centre
  4. (D)A focus of the wave
Wave Optics
Q041
In Young's double slit experiment, if the separation between the slits is doubled, the fringe width becomes
  1. (A)Twice
  2. (B)Half
  3. (C)Four times
  4. (D)Unchanged
Wave Optics
Q042
In the photoelectric effect, increasing the intensity of incident light while keeping the frequency constant increases
  1. (A)The maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons
  2. (B)The number of photoelectrons emitted per second
  3. (C)The threshold frequency
  4. (D)The work function
Dual Nature of Matter
Q043
Rutherford's alpha particle scattering experiment established the existence of
  1. (A)The electron
  2. (B)A small dense positively charged nucleus
  3. (C)The neutron
  4. (D)Energy quantisation
Atoms
Q044
A photodiode is always operated in
  1. (A)Forward bias
  2. (B)Reverse bias
  3. (C)Zero bias
  4. (D)Breakdown region
Semiconductors
Q045
In a light emitting diode, light is emitted when
  1. (A)Electrons are accelerated in the depletion layer
  2. (B)Electrons and holes recombine near the junction under forward bias
  3. (C)The diode is reverse biased
  4. (D)The junction is heated
Semiconductors

Chemistry

Section B  ·  45 questions  ·  180 marks
Q046
The number of moles of a gas occupying 11.2 litres at STP is
  1. (A)0.25
  2. (B)0.5
  3. (C)1.0
  4. (D)2.0
Some Basic Concepts
Q047
The percentage of nitrogen by mass in ammonium nitrate, NH₄NO₃, is
  1. (A)17.5%
  2. (B)28%
  3. (C)35%
  4. (D)46.7%
Some Basic Concepts
Q048
Atoms having the same mass number but different atomic numbers are called
  1. (A)Isotopes
  2. (B)Isobars
  3. (C)Isotones
  4. (D)Isoelectronic species
Structure of Atom
Q049
Heisenberg's uncertainty principle is expressed as
  1. (A)Δx · Δp ≥ h/4π
  2. (B)Δx · Δp = h
  3. (C)Δx/Δp ≥ h/2π
  4. (D)Δx · Δv ≥ h
Structure of Atom
Q050
The correct order of decreasing atomic radius is
  1. (A)Na > Mg > Al > Si
  2. (B)Si > Al > Mg > Na
  3. (C)Mg > Na > Si > Al
  4. (D)Al > Si > Na > Mg
Classification & Periodicity
Q051
Lithium resembles magnesium in many of its properties. This is an example of
  1. (A)Isomorphism
  2. (B)Diagonal relationship
  3. (C)Lanthanoid contraction
  4. (D)Allotropy
Classification & Periodicity
Q052
The hybridisation and geometry of PCl₅ are
  1. (A)sp³, tetrahedral
  2. (B)sp³d, trigonal bipyramidal
  3. (C)sp³d², octahedral
  4. (D)sp², trigonal planar
Chemical Bonding
Q053
The correct order of carbon–carbon bond length is
  1. (A)C≡C < C=C < C–C
  2. (B)C–C < C=C < C≡C
  3. (C)C=C < C≡C < C–C
  4. (D)All are equal
Chemical Bonding
Q054
In the carbonate ion, all three carbon–oxygen bonds are of equal length because of
  1. (A)sp³ hybridisation
  2. (B)Resonance
  3. (C)Hydrogen bonding
  4. (D)Ionic character
Chemical Bonding
Q055
o-Nitrophenol is more volatile than p-nitrophenol because o-nitrophenol has
  1. (A)Intermolecular hydrogen bonding
  2. (B)Intramolecular hydrogen bonding
  3. (C)A higher molecular mass
  4. (D)Greater symmetry
Chemical Bonding
Q056
At equilibrium, the Gibbs energy change of a reaction is
  1. (A)Maximum
  2. (B)Zero
  3. (C)Always negative
  4. (D)Equal to ΔH
Thermodynamics
Q057
The enthalpy of neutralisation of a strong acid with a strong base is nearly constant at −57.1 kJ mol⁻¹ because
  1. (A)All acids are equally strong
  2. (B)The reaction is always between H⁺ and OH⁻ to form water
  3. (C)Salts have equal lattice energy
  4. (D)Water is a weak electrolyte
Thermodynamics
Q058
Adding a catalyst to a system at equilibrium
  1. (A)Shifts the equilibrium forward
  2. (B)Shifts the equilibrium backward
  3. (C)Does not shift the equilibrium but helps it to be attained faster
  4. (D)Increases the equilibrium constant
Equilibrium
Q059
The pH of a 0.01 M solution of hydrochloric acid is
  1. (A)1
  2. (B)2
  3. (C)12
  4. (D)14
Equilibrium
Q060
According to the Lewis concept, BF₃ is
  1. (A)An acid because it accepts an electron pair
  2. (B)A base because it donates an electron pair
  3. (C)Neutral
  4. (D)An acid because it donates a proton
Equilibrium
Q061
In the reaction Zn + CuSO₄ → ZnSO₄ + Cu
  1. (A)Zinc is reduced
  2. (B)Copper is oxidised
  3. (C)Zinc is the reducing agent
  4. (D)Sulphate is oxidised
Redox Reactions
Q062
Homolytic fission of a covalent bond produces
  1. (A)Carbocations
  2. (B)Carbanions
  3. (C)Free radicals
  4. (D)Ions of opposite charge
Organic Chemistry – Basic Principles
Q063
Butan-1-ol and butan-2-ol are
  1. (A)Chain isomers
  2. (B)Position isomers
  3. (C)Functional isomers
  4. (D)Metamers
Organic Chemistry – Basic Principles
Q064
The technique used to purify a solid whose solubility differs greatly in hot and cold solvent is
  1. (A)Distillation
  2. (B)Crystallisation
  3. (C)Sublimation
  4. (D)Steam distillation
Organic Chemistry – Basic Principles
Q065
Catalytic hydrogenation of ethene in the presence of finely divided nickel gives
  1. (A)Ethane
  2. (B)Ethyne
  3. (C)Ethanol
  4. (D)Ethanal
Hydrocarbons
Q066
Baeyer's reagent, used to test unsaturation, is
  1. (A)Bromine water
  2. (B)Cold dilute alkaline KMnO₄
  3. (C)Acidified K₂Cr₂O₇
  4. (D)Tollens' reagent
Hydrocarbons
Q067
Oxidation of toluene with hot acidic KMnO₄ gives
  1. (A)Benzaldehyde
  2. (B)Benzoic acid
  3. (C)Benzyl alcohol
  4. (D)Phenol
Hydrocarbons
Q068
Which of the following concentration terms is independent of temperature?
  1. (A)Molarity
  2. (B)Normality
  3. (C)Molality
  4. (D)Volume percentage
Solutions
Q069
The depression in freezing point of a solution is proportional to
  1. (A)The mole fraction of solvent
  2. (B)The molality of the solution
  3. (C)The molarity of the solvent
  4. (D)The vapour pressure of the solute
Solutions
Q070
The function of a salt bridge in a galvanic cell is to
  1. (A)Supply electrons to the cathode
  2. (B)Maintain electrical neutrality and complete the circuit
  3. (C)Increase the cell emf
  4. (D)Prevent the flow of ions
Electrochemistry
Q071
The limiting molar conductivity of a weak electrolyte such as acetic acid is obtained by
  1. (A)Extrapolating the Λm versus √c plot
  2. (B)Applying Kohlrausch's law of independent migration of ions
  3. (C)Direct measurement at infinite dilution
  4. (D)Measuring the pH
Electrochemistry
Q072
For a reaction with rate = k[A][B], doubling the concentration of both A and B changes the rate by a factor of
  1. (A)2
  2. (B)3
  3. (C)4
  4. (D)8
Chemical Kinetics
Q073
For most chemical reactions, a rise in temperature of 10 K near room temperature
  1. (A)Halves the rate
  2. (B)Roughly doubles the rate
  3. (C)Leaves the rate unchanged
  4. (D)Increases the rate ten times
Chemical Kinetics
Q074
The spin-only magnetic moment of Ti³⁺ (3d¹) is
  1. (A)0 BM
  2. (B)1.73 BM
  3. (C)2.83 BM
  4. (D)3.87 BM
d- and f-Block Elements
Q075
Transition metals have high melting and boiling points mainly because of
  1. (A)Ionic bonding
  2. (B)Strong metallic bonding involving d electrons
  3. (C)Hydrogen bonding
  4. (D)van der Waals forces
d- and f-Block Elements
Q076
The intense purple colour of the permanganate ion arises from
  1. (A)A d–d transition
  2. (B)Charge transfer from oxygen to manganese
  3. (C)Unpaired d electrons
  4. (D)Lattice defects
d- and f-Block Elements
Q077
In Werner's theory, the secondary valency of a metal corresponds to its
  1. (A)Oxidation state
  2. (B)Coordination number
  3. (C)Atomic number
  4. (D)Charge on the complex
Coordination Compounds
Q078
The hybridisation of [Cr(NH₃)₆]³⁺ and its number of unpaired electrons are
  1. (A)sp³d², 3
  2. (B)d²sp³, 3
  3. (C)d²sp³, 0
  4. (D)sp³, 1
Coordination Compounds
Q079
Cis-platin, used in the treatment of cancer, is
  1. (A)trans-[Pt(NH₃)₂Cl₂]
  2. (B)cis-[Pt(NH₃)₂Cl₂]
  3. (C)[Pt(NH₃)₄]Cl₂
  4. (D)K₂[PtCl₄]
Coordination Compounds
Q080
An SN1 reaction at a chiral carbon generally gives
  1. (A)A single inverted product
  2. (B)A racemic mixture
  3. (C)Only the retained product
  4. (D)No reaction
Haloalkanes & Haloarenes
Q081
The Finkelstein reaction involves treating an alkyl chloride with
  1. (A)NaI in dry acetone
  2. (B)AgNO₂ in ethanol
  3. (C)Zn dust
  4. (D)Alcoholic KOH
Haloalkanes & Haloarenes
Q082
Reaction of methanal with a Grignard reagent followed by hydrolysis gives
  1. (A)A primary alcohol
  2. (B)A secondary alcohol
  3. (C)A tertiary alcohol
  4. (D)A carboxylic acid
Alcohols, Phenols & Ethers
Q083
The Reimer–Tiemann reaction converts phenol into
  1. (A)Picric acid
  2. (B)Salicylaldehyde
  3. (C)Salicylic acid
  4. (D)Anisole
Alcohols, Phenols & Ethers
Q084
Fehling's solution can be used to distinguish between
  1. (A)Ethanal and propanone
  2. (B)Ethanol and methanol
  3. (C)Benzene and toluene
  4. (D)Ethanoic acid and methanoic acid
Aldehydes, Ketones & Carboxylic Acids
Q085
The aldol condensation product of two molecules of ethanal is
  1. (A)3-Hydroxybutanal
  2. (B)But-2-enal only
  3. (C)Butane-1,3-diol
  4. (D)Butanoic acid
Aldehydes, Ketones & Carboxylic Acids
Q086
The correct order of acidic strength among the following substituted benzoic acids is
  1. (A)p-Methoxybenzoic acid > benzoic acid > p-nitrobenzoic acid
  2. (B)p-Nitrobenzoic acid > benzoic acid > p-methoxybenzoic acid
  3. (C)Benzoic acid > p-nitrobenzoic acid > p-methoxybenzoic acid
  4. (D)All are equally acidic
Aldehydes, Ketones & Carboxylic Acids
Q087
Aniline is a weaker base than ammonia because
  1. (A)Of steric hindrance
  2. (B)The lone pair on nitrogen is delocalised into the benzene ring
  3. (C)Nitrogen is sp³ hybridised
  4. (D)Of intramolecular hydrogen bonding
Amines
Q088
Benzenediazonium chloride couples with phenol in mildly alkaline medium to give
  1. (A)A red azo dye
  2. (B)An orange azo dye
  3. (C)Nitrobenzene
  4. (D)Benzoic acid
Amines
Q089
Which of the following is present in RNA but not in DNA?
  1. (A)Adenine
  2. (B)Guanine
  3. (C)Uracil
  4. (D)Cytosine
Biomolecules
Q090
Denaturation of a protein destroys its
  1. (A)Primary structure
  2. (B)Secondary and tertiary structure
  3. (C)Peptide bonds
  4. (D)Amino acid sequence
Biomolecules

Botany

Section C  ·  45 questions  ·  180 marks
Q091
A collection of preserved plant specimens mounted on sheets, arranged according to a system of classification, is a
  1. (A)Botanical garden
  2. (B)Herbarium
  3. (C)Museum
  4. (D)Zoological park
The Living World
Q092
A comma shaped bacterium is described as
  1. (A)Coccus
  2. (B)Bacillus
  3. (C)Vibrio
  4. (D)Spirillum
Biological Classification
Q093
Euglenoids are unusual because they
  1. (A)Have a cellulose cell wall
  2. (B)Have a protein-rich pellicle and are mixotrophic
  3. (C)Are strictly parasitic
  4. (D)Lack flagella
Biological Classification
Q094
Rhizopus belongs to the class Phycomycetes and is characterised by
  1. (A)Septate hyphae and ascospores
  2. (B)Coenocytic aseptate hyphae and zygospores
  3. (C)Basidiospores
  4. (D)Conidia only
Biological Classification
Q095
In bryophytes, the dominant and independent phase of the life cycle is the
  1. (A)Sporophyte
  2. (B)Gametophyte
  3. (C)Protonema only
  4. (D)Zygote
Plant Kingdom
Q096
Pollination in Pinus is brought about by
  1. (A)Insects
  2. (B)Water
  3. (C)Wind
  4. (D)Birds
Plant Kingdom
Q097
Reticulate venation is characteristically found in
  1. (A)Monocot leaves
  2. (B)Dicot leaves
  3. (C)Ferns only
  4. (D)Gymnosperm needles
Morphology of Flowering Plants
Q098
Flowers of Liliaceae are typically
  1. (A)Trimerous with a superior ovary
  2. (B)Pentamerous with an inferior ovary
  3. (C)Tetramerous with a superior ovary
  4. (D)Trimerous with an inferior ovary
Morphology of Flowering Plants
Q099
The seed of pea is
  1. (A)Endospermic
  2. (B)Non-endospermic
  3. (C)Perispermic
  4. (D)Albuminous
Morphology of Flowering Plants
Q100
In a dicot stem, the complete ring of vascular cambium is formed from
  1. (A)Only intrafascicular cambium
  2. (B)Only interfascicular cambium
  3. (C)Intrafascicular plus newly formed interfascicular cambium
  4. (D)The pericycle alone
Anatomy of Flowering Plants
Q101
Lenticels in the bark of a woody stem help in
  1. (A)Water absorption
  2. (B)Gaseous exchange
  3. (C)Food storage
  4. (D)Support
Anatomy of Flowering Plants
Q102
Collenchyma is characterised by
  1. (A)Dead cells with uniformly lignified walls
  2. (B)Living cells with cellulose and pectin thickening at the corners
  3. (C)Cells with no wall thickening
  4. (D)Cells with silica deposits
Anatomy of Flowering Plants
Q103
The statement 'omnis cellula e cellula', that new cells arise from pre-existing cells, was given by
  1. (A)Schleiden
  2. (B)Schwann
  3. (C)Rudolf Virchow
  4. (D)Robert Hooke
Cell: The Unit of Life
Q104
Lysosomes are described as suicidal bags because they contain
  1. (A)Oxidative enzymes at alkaline pH
  2. (B)Hydrolytic enzymes active at acidic pH
  3. (C)Respiratory pigments
  4. (D)Photosynthetic pigments
Cell: The Unit of Life
Q105
The centriole shows a characteristic arrangement of microtubule triplets described as
  1. (A)9 + 2
  2. (B)9 + 0 with a cartwheel structure
  3. (C)5 + 2
  4. (D)11 + 0
Cell: The Unit of Life
Q106
The bond formed between the carboxyl group of one amino acid and the amino group of another is a
  1. (A)Glycosidic bond
  2. (B)Peptide bond
  3. (C)Ester bond
  4. (D)Phosphodiester bond
Biomolecules
Q107
Phospholipids of the cell membrane are described as amphipathic because they have
  1. (A)Only hydrophobic regions
  2. (B)Both hydrophilic head and hydrophobic tail regions
  3. (C)Only hydrophilic regions
  4. (D)No charged groups
Biomolecules
Q108
Cells that have exited the cell cycle and remain metabolically active without dividing are said to be in
  1. (A)S phase
  2. (B)G₂ phase
  3. (C)G₀ or quiescent stage
  4. (D)Prophase
Cell Cycle & Cell Division
Q109
Terminalisation of chiasmata is completed during
  1. (A)Zygotene
  2. (B)Pachytene
  3. (C)Diakinesis
  4. (D)Anaphase I
Cell Cycle & Cell Division
Q110
Chlorophyll a is called the primary pigment because
  1. (A)It absorbs all wavelengths
  2. (B)It is the reaction centre pigment that finally traps and converts light energy
  3. (C)It is the most abundant lipid
  4. (D)It is present only in PS I
Photosynthesis
Q111
In non-cyclic photophosphorylation, electrons flow from
  1. (A)PS I to PS II
  2. (B)Water to PS II to PS I to NADP⁺
  3. (C)NADPH to water
  4. (D)PS II back to PS II
Photosynthesis
Q112
The three phases of the Calvin cycle in correct order are
  1. (A)Reduction, carboxylation, regeneration
  2. (B)Carboxylation, reduction, regeneration
  3. (C)Regeneration, reduction, carboxylation
  4. (D)Carboxylation, regeneration, reduction
Photosynthesis
Q113
In most plants, the light saturation point for photosynthesis occurs at about
  1. (A)1% of full sunlight
  2. (B)10% of full sunlight
  3. (C)50% of full sunlight
  4. (D)100% of full sunlight
Photosynthesis
Q114
In the electron transport system, the final acceptor of electrons is
  1. (A)NAD⁺
  2. (B)FAD
  3. (C)Oxygen
  4. (D)Cytochrome c
Respiration in Plants
Q115
Respiration is described as an amphibolic pathway because it
  1. (A)Only breaks down molecules
  2. (B)Involves both catabolism and anabolism
  3. (C)Occurs only in the dark
  4. (D)Produces only ATP
Respiration in Plants
Q116
When growth is plotted against time, the resulting curve is typically
  1. (A)Linear
  2. (B)Sigmoid
  3. (C)Exponential throughout
  4. (D)Hyperbolic
Plant Growth & Development
Q117
The regaining of the capacity to divide by a permanent, differentiated cell is called
  1. (A)Differentiation
  2. (B)Dedifferentiation
  3. (C)Redifferentiation
  4. (D)Senescence
Plant Growth & Development
Q118
In a typical ovule, the functional megaspore is usually the
  1. (A)Micropylar one
  2. (B)Chalazal one
  3. (C)Middle one
  4. (D)All four remain functional
Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants
Q119
Pollen grains of which plant are a well known cause of allergy?
  1. (A)Wheat
  2. (B)Parthenium
  3. (C)Rice
  4. (D)Mango
Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants
Q120
Coconut water represents
  1. (A)Cellular endosperm
  2. (B)Free nuclear endosperm
  3. (C)Perisperm
  4. (D)Nucellus
Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants
Q121
Emasculation is necessary in artificial hybridisation when the female parent bears
  1. (A)Unisexual flowers
  2. (B)Bisexual flowers
  3. (C)Only male flowers
  4. (D)Cleistogamous flowers
Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants
Q122
A cross of an F₁ hybrid with its homozygous recessive parent is called a
  1. (A)Back cross
  2. (B)Test cross
  3. (C)Reciprocal cross
  4. (D)Dihybrid cross
Principles of Inheritance
Q123
Phenylketonuria, in which a single gene affects several traits, is an example of
  1. (A)Pleiotropy
  2. (B)Polygenic inheritance
  3. (C)Codominance
  4. (D)Multiple allelism
Principles of Inheritance
Q124
The chromosomal theory of inheritance was proposed by
  1. (A)Mendel
  2. (B)Sutton and Boveri
  3. (C)Morgan
  4. (D)Bateson
Principles of Inheritance
Q125
Klinefelter's syndrome corresponds to the karyotype
  1. (A)45, XO
  2. (B)47, XXY
  3. (C)47, XYY
  4. (D)46, XX
Principles of Inheritance
Q126
According to Chargaff's rule, in double stranded DNA
  1. (A)A + T = G + C
  2. (B)A = G and T = C
  3. (C)A = T and G = C
  4. (D)A + G = T + C only in RNA
Molecular Basis of Inheritance
Q127
A typical nucleosome contains DNA of about
  1. (A)100 base pairs
  2. (B)200 base pairs
  3. (C)500 base pairs
  4. (D)1000 base pairs
Molecular Basis of Inheritance
Q128
In eukaryotes, the removal of introns and joining of exons in hnRNA is called
  1. (A)Capping
  2. (B)Tailing
  3. (C)Splicing
  4. (D)Termination
Molecular Basis of Inheritance
Q129
One of the goals of the Human Genome Project was to determine the sequence of about
  1. (A)3.3 million base pairs
  2. (B)33 million base pairs
  3. (C)3164.7 million base pairs
  4. (D)31647 million base pairs
Molecular Basis of Inheritance
Q130
The cuckoo laying eggs in the nest of a crow is an example of
  1. (A)Mutualism
  2. (B)Brood parasitism
  3. (C)Commensalism
  4. (D)Predation
Organisms & Populations
Q131
The population density of a tiger reserve is commonly estimated from
  1. (A)Direct counting of individuals
  2. (B)Pug marks and faecal pellets
  3. (C)Biomass measurement
  4. (D)Percentage cover
Organisms & Populations
Q132
The annual net primary productivity of the whole biosphere is approximately
  1. (A)17 billion tons
  2. (B)170 billion tons
  3. (C)1700 billion tons
  4. (D)55 billion tons
Ecosystem
Q133
The phosphorus cycle is described as a
  1. (A)Gaseous cycle
  2. (B)Sedimentary cycle
  3. (C)Hydrological cycle
  4. (D)Perfect cycle
Ecosystem
Q134
The rivet popper hypothesis, comparing species to rivets in an aeroplane, was given by
  1. (A)David Tilman
  2. (B)Paul Ehrlich
  3. (C)Alexander von Humboldt
  4. (D)Robert May
Biodiversity & Conservation
Q135
The number of species so far described and named by taxonomists is about
  1. (A)0.5 million
  2. (B)1.7 to 1.8 million
  3. (C)7 million
  4. (D)20 million
Biodiversity & Conservation

Zoology

Section D  ·  45 questions  ·  180 marks
Q136
The tissue level of body organisation appears first in
  1. (A)Porifera
  2. (B)Cnidaria
  3. (C)Platyhelminthes
  4. (D)Annelida
Animal Kingdom
Q137
Adult echinoderms show
  1. (A)Bilateral symmetry
  2. (B)Radial symmetry
  3. (C)No symmetry
  4. (D)Spherical symmetry
Animal Kingdom
Q138
Reptiles are characterised by
  1. (A)Moist glandular skin
  2. (B)Dry cornified skin with epidermal scales
  3. (C)Feathers
  4. (D)Hair and mammary glands
Animal Kingdom
Q139
Pneumatic bones and air sacs connected to the lungs are found in
  1. (A)Amphibians
  2. (B)Reptiles
  3. (C)Birds
  4. (D)Mammals
Animal Kingdom
Q140
Which of the following is a connective tissue?
  1. (A)Blood
  2. (B)Ciliated epithelium
  3. (C)Cardiac muscle
  4. (D)Nerve tissue
Structural Organisation in Animals
Q141
The heart of a frog is
  1. (A)Two chambered
  2. (B)Three chambered
  3. (C)Four chambered
  4. (D)Absent
Structural Organisation in Animals
Q142
The volume of air remaining in the lungs even after a forcible expiration is the
  1. (A)Tidal volume
  2. (B)Inspiratory reserve volume
  3. (C)Expiratory reserve volume
  4. (D)Residual volume
Breathing & Exchange of Gases
Q143
The percentage of oxygen transported in blood in combination with haemoglobin is about
  1. (A)7%
  2. (B)20%
  3. (C)70%
  4. (D)97%
Breathing & Exchange of Gases
Q144
The duration of one cardiac cycle in a normal adult is about
  1. (A)0.4 s
  2. (B)0.8 s
  3. (C)1.2 s
  4. (D)2.0 s
Body Fluids & Circulation
Q145
The normal platelet count in human blood is about
  1. (A)5000 to 8000 per mm³
  2. (B)1.5 to 3.5 lakh per mm³
  3. (C)5 million per mm³
  4. (D)50 to 100 per mm³
Body Fluids & Circulation
Q146
Double circulation in mammals means that blood
  1. (A)Passes through the heart once per complete circuit
  2. (B)Passes through the heart twice per complete circuit
  3. (C)Never returns to the heart
  4. (D)Flows only through the lungs
Body Fluids & Circulation
Q147
The cells of the inner visceral layer of Bowman's capsule with filtration slits are called
  1. (A)Podocytes
  2. (B)Juxtaglomerular cells
  3. (C)Mesangial cells
  4. (D)Macula densa
Excretory Products
Q148
Accumulation of urea in the blood is known as
  1. (A)Uremia
  2. (B)Ketonuria
  3. (C)Glycosuria
  4. (D)Renal calculi
Excretory Products
Q149
Smooth muscles are
  1. (A)Striated and voluntary
  2. (B)Non-striated and involuntary
  3. (C)Striated and involuntary
  4. (D)Non-striated and voluntary
Locomotion & Movement
Q150
Red muscle fibres differ from white fibres in having
  1. (A)Less myoglobin and fewer mitochondria
  2. (B)Abundant myoglobin and mitochondria, relying on aerobic respiration
  3. (C)No blood supply
  4. (D)Only anaerobic metabolism
Locomotion & Movement
Q151
Muscular dystrophy is
  1. (A)An autoimmune disorder
  2. (B)A genetic disorder causing progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle
  3. (C)Caused by calcium excess
  4. (D)An infection of muscle tissue
Locomotion & Movement
Q152
The rising phase of an action potential is caused by
  1. (A)Efflux of K⁺
  2. (B)Influx of Na⁺
  3. (C)Influx of Cl⁻
  4. (D)Efflux of Ca²⁺
Neural Control & Coordination
Q153
Hunger, thirst and body temperature are regulated by the
  1. (A)Cerebrum
  2. (B)Hypothalamus
  3. (C)Cerebellum
  4. (D)Medulla
Neural Control & Coordination
Q154
The blind spot of the human eye is the region where
  1. (A)Cones are most densely packed
  2. (B)The optic nerve leaves the eye and photoreceptors are absent
  3. (C)Rods are most abundant
  4. (D)The lens focuses light
Neural Control & Coordination
Q155
The secretion of hormones from the anterior pituitary is controlled by
  1. (A)The posterior pituitary
  2. (B)Hypothalamic releasing and inhibiting hormones
  3. (C)The pineal gland
  4. (D)The adrenal medulla
Chemical Coordination
Q156
Melatonin, which regulates the diurnal rhythm of the body, is secreted by the
  1. (A)Thymus
  2. (B)Pineal gland
  3. (C)Thyroid
  4. (D)Pancreas
Chemical Coordination
Q157
Glucagon acts on the liver to
  1. (A)Promote glycogenesis
  2. (B)Stimulate glycogenolysis and raise blood glucose
  3. (C)Increase glucose uptake by cells
  4. (D)Lower blood glucose
Chemical Coordination
Q158
Aldosterone acts mainly on the renal tubules to
  1. (A)Promote reabsorption of Na⁺ and water
  2. (B)Promote excretion of Na⁺
  3. (C)Increase glucose reabsorption
  4. (D)Decrease blood volume
Chemical Coordination
Q159
Which of the following is NOT a male accessory gland?
  1. (A)Seminal vesicle
  2. (B)Prostate gland
  3. (C)Bulbourethral gland
  4. (D)Bartholin's gland
Human Reproduction
Q160
In a 28-day menstrual cycle, the secretory phase corresponds to days
  1. (A)1 to 5
  2. (B)6 to 13
  3. (C)15 to 28
  4. (D)13 to 15
Human Reproduction
Q161
The acrosome of a sperm is derived from the
  1. (A)Mitochondria
  2. (B)Golgi apparatus
  3. (C)Nucleus
  4. (D)Centriole
Human Reproduction
Q162
The amniotic fluid surrounding the foetus mainly serves to
  1. (A)Supply nutrition
  2. (B)Protect the foetus from mechanical shock
  3. (C)Carry out gas exchange
  4. (D)Remove nitrogenous waste
Human Reproduction
Q163
Vasectomy involves
  1. (A)Removal of the testes
  2. (B)Cutting and tying the vas deferens
  3. (C)Blocking the fallopian tube
  4. (D)Removing the prostate
Reproductive Health
Q164
A major cause of the population explosion in India is
  1. (A)An increased death rate
  2. (B)A rapid decline in maternal and infant mortality rates
  3. (C)Reduced life expectancy
  4. (D)A falling number of people in the reproductive age group
Reproductive Health
Q165
Apart from preventing conception, condoms also
  1. (A)Increase fertility
  2. (B)Protect against sexually transmitted infections
  3. (C)Regulate the menstrual cycle
  4. (D)Act as a spermicide
Reproductive Health
Q166
The idea that life arose from non-living organic molecules through chemical evolution was proposed by
  1. (A)Louis Pasteur
  2. (B)Oparin and Haldane
  3. (C)Charles Darwin
  4. (D)Ernst Haeckel
Evolution
Q167
Sweet potato and potato provide an example of
  1. (A)Homology
  2. (B)Analogy
  3. (C)Vestigial organs
  4. (D)Atavism
Evolution
Q168
The rapid appearance of antibiotic resistant bacteria demonstrates
  1. (A)Lamarckian inheritance
  2. (B)Evolution occurring in the present time by natural selection
  3. (C)Genetic drift only
  4. (D)Artificial selection
Evolution
Q169
The correct evolutionary sequence is
  1. (A)Homo habilis, Australopithecus, Homo erectus, Homo sapiens
  2. (B)Australopithecus, Homo habilis, Homo erectus, Homo sapiens
  3. (C)Homo erectus, Homo habilis, Australopithecus, Homo sapiens
  4. (D)Australopithecus, Homo erectus, Homo habilis, Homo sapiens
Evolution
Q170
Embryological support for evolution as proposed by Ernst Haeckel was later disproved by
  1. (A)Charles Darwin
  2. (B)Karl Ernst von Baer
  3. (C)Hugo de Vries
  4. (D)Alfred Wallace
Evolution
Q171
Amoebiasis, or amoebic dysentery, is caused by
  1. (A)Entamoeba histolytica
  2. (B)Plasmodium vivax
  3. (C)Trypanosoma
  4. (D)Giardia
Human Health & Disease
Q172
In pneumonia, the alveoli become filled with fluid, leading to
  1. (A)Increased oxygen uptake
  2. (B)Severe problems in respiration
  3. (C)Excess urine formation
  4. (D)Loss of appetite only
Human Health & Disease
Q173
Rejection of a transplanted organ is mainly due to
  1. (A)Humoral immunity
  2. (B)Cell-mediated immunity involving T lymphocytes
  3. (C)Innate immunity
  4. (D)Passive immunity
Human Health & Disease
Q174
Which of the following is used in the treatment of cancer to activate the immune system?
  1. (A)Insulin
  2. (B)Alpha interferon
  3. (C)Penicillin
  4. (D)Adrenaline
Human Health & Disease
Q175
Anabolic steroids are misused by some athletes because they
  1. (A)Reduce anxiety only
  2. (B)Increase muscle strength and aggressiveness
  3. (C)Improve eyesight
  4. (D)Act as painkillers
Human Health & Disease
Q176
In the name of the restriction enzyme EcoRI, the letter 'R' denotes
  1. (A)The genus
  2. (B)The species
  3. (C)The strain of the bacterium
  4. (D)The order of isolation
Biotechnology – Principles
Q177
A gene that helps identify transformants by eliminating non-transformants is called
  1. (A)A reporter gene
  2. (B)A selectable marker
  3. (C)A structural gene
  4. (D)A promoter
Biotechnology – Principles
Q178
Separation and purification of a product after the completion of a biosynthetic stage is termed
  1. (A)Upstream processing
  2. (B)Downstream processing
  3. (C)Fermentation
  4. (D)Transformation
Biotechnology – Principles
Q179
Very early detection of HIV infection in a suspected patient is possible by
  1. (A)Blood smear examination
  2. (B)Polymerase chain reaction
  3. (C)Widal test
  4. (D)Mantoux test
Biotechnology – Applications
Q180
The organisation that makes decisions on the validity of GM research in India is
  1. (A)ICMR
  2. (B)GEAC
  3. (C)CSIR
  4. (D)WHO
Biotechnology – Applications