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Most-Expected Paper — Set 3

Full-syllabus NEET pattern paper built on recurring question types from past NEET papers and the rationalised NCERT syllabus. All 180 questions are compulsory.

Questions
180
Marks
720
Duration
200 min
Marking
+4 / −1
Set
3
Instructions. Attempt all 180 questions. Each correct answer earns +4; each incorrect answer costs −1; unattempted questions score 0. Only one option is correct. Use of calculators is not permitted. Mark the answer sheet before checking the key — leave a question blank only when you truly cannot narrow it to two options.

Physics

Section A  ·  45 questions  ·  180 marks
Q001
The dimensional formula of the universal gravitational constant G is
  1. (A)[ML²T⁻²]
  2. (B)[M⁻¹L³T⁻²]
  3. (C)[M⁻¹L²T⁻¹]
  4. (D)[ML³T⁻²]
Units & Dimensions
Q002
The product 2.5 × 1.25, expressed to the correct number of significant figures, is
  1. (A)3.125
  2. (B)3.13
  3. (C)3.1
  4. (D)3
Errors & Significant Figures
Q003
The position of a particle is given by x = 4t² + 2t. Its velocity at t = 2 s is
  1. (A)10 m s⁻¹
  2. (B)16 m s⁻¹
  3. (C)18 m s⁻¹
  4. (D)20 m s⁻¹
Kinematics
Q004
A projectile thrown with a fixed speed has the same horizontal range for angles of projection
  1. (A)30° and 45°
  2. (B)30° and 60°
  3. (C)45° and 60°
  4. (D)20° and 60°
Kinematics
Q005
A man of mass m stands in a lift descending with acceleration a. His apparent weight is
  1. (A)m(g + a)
  2. (B)m(g − a)
  3. (C)mg
  4. (D)ma
Laws of Motion
Q006
A gun of mass 4 kg fires a bullet of mass 20 g with a muzzle velocity of 400 m s⁻¹. The recoil velocity of the gun is
  1. (A)0.5 m s⁻¹
  2. (B)1 m s⁻¹
  3. (C)2 m s⁻¹
  4. (D)4 m s⁻¹
Laws of Motion
Q007
A body falls freely from rest. The ratio of its kinetic energy at half the height of fall to that on reaching the ground is
  1. (A)1 : 4
  2. (B)1 : 2
  3. (C)1 : √2
  4. (D)2 : 1
Work, Energy & Power
Q008
The moment of inertia of a uniform circular ring of mass M and radius R about a diameter is
  1. (A)MR²
  2. (B)MR²/2
  3. (C)MR²/4
  4. (D)2MR²
Rotational Motion
Q009
A solid sphere rolls down an incline without slipping from a height h. Its speed at the bottom is
  1. (A)√(2gh)
  2. (B)√(10gh/7)
  3. (C)√(4gh/3)
  4. (D)√(gh)
Rotational Motion
Q010
The acceleration due to gravity at a height equal to the radius of the earth is
  1. (A)g/2
  2. (B)g/4
  3. (C)g/8
  4. (D)2g
Gravitation
Q011
A geostationary satellite orbits the earth with a period of
  1. (A)1 hour
  2. (B)12 hours
  3. (C)24 hours
  4. (D)365 days
Gravitation
Q012
A wire of a given material breaks under a load W. If a wire of the same material and same radius but half the length is taken, it will break under a load of
  1. (A)W/2
  2. (B)W
  3. (C)2W
  4. (D)4W
Elasticity
Q013
Water flows through a pipe whose cross-sectional area narrows to one quarter. The speed of flow in the narrow section becomes
  1. (A)One quarter
  2. (B)Half
  3. (C)Twice
  4. (D)Four times
Fluids
Q014
The rise of a liquid in a capillary tube is
  1. (A)Directly proportional to the radius
  2. (B)Inversely proportional to the radius
  3. (C)Independent of the radius
  4. (D)Proportional to the square of the radius
Fluids
Q015
The relation between the coefficient of volume expansion γ and the coefficient of linear expansion α is
  1. (A)γ = α
  2. (B)γ = 2α
  3. (C)γ = 3α
  4. (D)γ = α/3
Thermal Properties
Q016
The heat required to melt 10 g of ice at 0 °C into water at 0 °C is (latent heat of fusion = 80 cal g⁻¹)
  1. (A)80 cal
  2. (B)400 cal
  3. (C)800 cal
  4. (D)8000 cal
Thermal Properties
Q017
In an isochoric process, the heat supplied to a gas
  1. (A)Is entirely converted into work
  2. (B)Entirely increases the internal energy
  3. (C)Is zero
  4. (D)Equals the enthalpy change plus work
Thermodynamics
Q018
The coefficient of performance of a refrigerator working between 250 K and 300 K is
  1. (A)1
  2. (B)5
  3. (C)6
  4. (D)0.2
Thermodynamics
Q019
The pressure exerted by an ideal gas is given by
  1. (A)P = ρv²
  2. (B)P = ⅓ρv²_rms
  3. (C)P = ⅔ρv²_rms
  4. (D)P = 3ρv²_rms
Kinetic Theory
Q020
The total energy of a particle of mass m executing SHM of angular frequency ω and amplitude A is
  1. (A)½mωA²
  2. (B)½mω²A²
  3. (C)mω²A²
  4. (D)½mω²A
Oscillations
Q021
The distance between two successive nodes in a stationary wave is
  1. (A)λ
  2. (B)λ/2
  3. (C)λ/4
  4. (D)2λ
Waves
Q022
The speed of a transverse wave on a stretched string of tension T and linear mass density μ is
  1. (A)√(μ/T)
  2. (B)√(T/μ)
  3. (C)T/μ
  4. (D)Tμ
Waves
Q023
Electric field lines
  1. (A)Can intersect one another
  2. (B)Never intersect one another
  3. (C)Always form closed loops
  4. (D)Start from negative charges
Electrostatics
Q024
Two point charges of +4 μC and −4 μC are placed 2 m apart. The electric potential at the midpoint of the line joining them is
  1. (A)Zero
  2. (B)36 kV
  3. (C)72 kV
  4. (D)18 kV
Electrostatics
Q025
The energy stored in a 2 μF capacitor charged to a potential of 100 V is
  1. (A)0.01 J
  2. (B)0.02 J
  3. (C)0.1 J
  4. (D)1 J
Capacitors
Q026
Kirchhoff's junction rule is based on the conservation of
  1. (A)Energy
  2. (B)Charge
  3. (C)Momentum
  4. (D)Magnetic flux
Current Electricity
Q027
Resistances of 4 Ω and 6 Ω are connected in parallel. Their equivalent resistance is
  1. (A)2.0 Ω
  2. (B)2.4 Ω
  3. (C)5.0 Ω
  4. (D)10 Ω
Current Electricity
Q028
A 100 W bulb and a 60 W bulb, both rated 220 V, are connected in series across a 220 V supply. Then
  1. (A)The 100 W bulb glows brighter
  2. (B)The 60 W bulb glows brighter
  3. (C)Both glow equally
  4. (D)Neither glows
Current Electricity
Q029
The magnetic field at a point 2 cm from a long straight wire carrying 5 A is
  1. (A)2 × 10⁻⁵ T
  2. (B)5 × 10⁻⁵ T
  3. (C)5 × 10⁻⁶ T
  4. (D)1 × 10⁻⁴ T
Moving Charges & Magnetism
Q030
The current sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer is increased by
  1. (A)Decreasing the number of turns
  2. (B)Increasing the torsional constant of the suspension
  3. (C)Increasing the number of turns and the area of the coil
  4. (D)Decreasing the magnetic field
Moving Charges & Magnetism
Q031
The net magnetic flux through any closed surface is always zero because
  1. (A)Magnetic fields are weak
  2. (B)Isolated magnetic monopoles do not exist
  3. (C)Magnetic field lines are straight
  4. (D)Magnetic materials are neutral
Magnetism & Matter
Q032
The magnetic flux through a coil changes from 5 Wb to 1 Wb in 0.2 s. The magnitude of the average induced emf is
  1. (A)4 V
  2. (B)10 V
  3. (C)20 V
  4. (D)25 V
Electromagnetic Induction
Q033
Eddy currents are put to practical use in
  1. (A)Electric heaters
  2. (B)Induction furnaces and electromagnetic braking
  3. (C)Fuse wires
  4. (D)Filament lamps
Electromagnetic Induction
Q034
In a series LCR circuit R = 3 Ω and (X_L − X_C) = 4 Ω. The impedance of the circuit is
  1. (A)1 Ω
  2. (B)3 Ω
  3. (C)5 Ω
  4. (D)7 Ω
Alternating Current
Q035
A wattless current flows in a circuit containing
  1. (A)Only a resistor
  2. (B)Only a pure inductor or capacitor
  3. (C)A resistor and an inductor
  4. (D)A resistor at resonance
Alternating Current
Q036
In an electromagnetic wave, the electric field, the magnetic field and the direction of propagation are
  1. (A)All parallel
  2. (B)Mutually perpendicular
  3. (C)At 45° to one another
  4. (D)Randomly oriented
Electromagnetic Waves
Q037
The power of a lens of focal length 25 cm is
  1. (A)0.25 D
  2. (B)2 D
  3. (C)4 D
  4. (D)25 D
Ray Optics
Q038
The magnifying power of an astronomical telescope in normal adjustment is
  1. (A)f_e/f_o
  2. (B)f_o/f_e
  3. (C)f_o × f_e
  4. (D)f_o + f_e
Ray Optics
Q039
In Young's double slit experiment, constructive interference occurs when the path difference equals
  1. (A)(2n + 1)λ/2
  2. (B)nλ
  3. (C)nλ/2
  4. (D)(2n − 1)λ/4
Wave Optics
Q040
According to Brewster's law, the tangent of the polarising angle is equal to
  1. (A)The wavelength of light
  2. (B)The refractive index of the medium
  3. (C)The critical angle
  4. (D)Unity
Wave Optics
Q041
The de Broglie wavelength of an electron accelerated through a potential difference of V volts is nearly
  1. (A)12.27/√V Å
  2. (B)12.27 V Å
  3. (C)1.227/V Å
  4. (D)√V/12.27 Å
Dual Nature of Matter
Q042
The density of a nucleus
  1. (A)Increases with mass number
  2. (B)Decreases with mass number
  3. (C)Is independent of mass number
  4. (D)Is proportional to A²
Nuclei
Q043
In the hydrogen spectrum, the transition from n = 3 to n = 2 produces a line in the
  1. (A)Lyman series, ultraviolet
  2. (B)Balmer series, visible
  3. (C)Paschen series, infrared
  4. (D)Brackett series
Atoms
Q044
A full wave rectifier is fed from a 50 Hz AC supply. The ripple frequency of its output is
  1. (A)25 Hz
  2. (B)50 Hz
  3. (C)100 Hz
  4. (D)200 Hz
Semiconductors
Q045
In an n-type semiconductor, the majority charge carriers are
  1. (A)Holes
  2. (B)Electrons
  3. (C)Positive ions
  4. (D)Negative ions
Semiconductors

Chemistry

Section B  ·  45 questions  ·  180 marks
Q046
The molarity of a solution containing 5.85 g of NaCl in 500 mL of solution is (molar mass = 58.5)
  1. (A)0.1 M
  2. (B)0.2 M
  3. (C)0.5 M
  4. (D)1.0 M
Some Basic Concepts
Q047
The mass of CO₂ produced by the complete combustion of 12 g of carbon is
  1. (A)12 g
  2. (B)22 g
  3. (C)44 g
  4. (D)88 g
Some Basic Concepts
Q048
The electronic configuration of Cu²⁺ (Z = 29) is
  1. (A)[Ar]3d⁹4s⁰
  2. (B)[Ar]3d⁸4s¹
  3. (C)[Ar]3d¹⁰4s¹
  4. (D)[Ar]3d¹⁰4s²
Structure of Atom
Q049
The number of radial nodes in a 3s orbital is
  1. (A)0
  2. (B)1
  3. (C)2
  4. (D)3
Structure of Atom
Q050
The first ionisation enthalpy of boron is lower than that of beryllium because
  1. (A)Boron is larger
  2. (B)The 2p electron of boron is more easily removed than the paired 2s electron of beryllium
  3. (C)Boron has a half-filled shell
  4. (D)Beryllium is a metal
Classification & Periodicity
Q051
The most electronegative element in the periodic table is
  1. (A)Chlorine
  2. (B)Oxygen
  3. (C)Fluorine
  4. (D)Nitrogen
Classification & Periodicity
Q052
Which of the following contains a coordinate (dative) bond?
  1. (A)CH₄
  2. (B)NH₄⁺
  3. (C)H₂O
  4. (D)CO₂
Chemical Bonding
Q053
The dipole moment of NH₃ is greater than that of NF₃ because in NH₃
  1. (A)Nitrogen is more electronegative than hydrogen
  2. (B)The bond moments and the lone pair moment act in the same direction
  3. (C)There is no lone pair
  4. (D)The molecule is planar
Chemical Bonding
Q054
The He₂ molecule does not exist because its bond order is
  1. (A)0.5
  2. (B)Zero
  3. (C)1
  4. (D)2
Chemical Bonding
Q055
According to Fajans' rules, covalent character in an ionic bond increases with
  1. (A)Larger cation and smaller anion
  2. (B)Smaller cation with high charge and larger anion
  3. (C)Low charge on the cation
  4. (D)Symmetrical anions only
Chemical Bonding
Q056
For a spontaneous process in an isolated system, the entropy change is
  1. (A)Negative
  2. (B)Zero
  3. (C)Positive
  4. (D)Undefined
Thermodynamics
Q057
A bomb calorimeter measures the heat change at constant
  1. (A)Pressure, giving ΔH
  2. (B)Volume, giving ΔU
  3. (C)Temperature, giving ΔG
  4. (D)Entropy
Thermodynamics
Q058
An aqueous solution of sodium acetate is
  1. (A)Acidic
  2. (B)Neutral
  3. (C)Basic
  4. (D)Amphoteric
Equilibrium
Q059
A very large value of the equilibrium constant K indicates that
  1. (A)Reactants predominate at equilibrium
  2. (B)Products predominate at equilibrium
  3. (C)The reaction is very slow
  4. (D)The reaction is endothermic
Equilibrium
Q060
Ostwald's dilution law is applicable to
  1. (A)Strong electrolytes
  2. (B)Weak electrolytes
  3. (C)Non-electrolytes
  4. (D)Molten salts
Equilibrium
Q061
The equivalent mass of KMnO₄ acting as an oxidising agent in acidic medium is
  1. (A)M/2
  2. (B)M/3
  3. (C)M/5
  4. (D)M/6
Redox Reactions
Q062
Which of the following species is a nucleophile?
  1. (A)BF₃
  2. (B)AlCl₃
  3. (C)CN⁻
  4. (D)NO₂⁺
Organic Chemistry – Basic Principles
Q063
The correct order of stability of free radicals is
  1. (A)1° > 2° > 3°
  2. (B)3° > 2° > 1°
  3. (C)2° > 3° > 1°
  4. (D)All are equally stable
Organic Chemistry – Basic Principles
Q064
Which of the following exhibits optical isomerism?
  1. (A)1-Chlorobutane
  2. (B)2-Chlorobutane
  3. (C)2-Chloropropane
  4. (D)Chloroethane
Organic Chemistry – Basic Principles
Q065
Kolbe's electrolysis of an aqueous solution of sodium acetate gives
  1. (A)Methane
  2. (B)Ethane
  3. (C)Ethene
  4. (D)Ethyne
Hydrocarbons
Q066
The peroxide (Kharasch) effect is observed with
  1. (A)HCl only
  2. (B)HBr only
  3. (C)HI only
  4. (D)All hydrogen halides
Hydrocarbons
Q067
According to Hückel's rule, an aromatic compound must have
  1. (A)4n π electrons
  2. (B)(4n + 2) π electrons in a planar cyclic system
  3. (C)Only six carbon atoms
  4. (D)No delocalised electrons
Hydrocarbons
Q068
Henry's law states that the solubility of a gas in a liquid is
  1. (A)Inversely proportional to its partial pressure
  2. (B)Directly proportional to its partial pressure
  3. (C)Independent of pressure
  4. (D)Proportional to the square of pressure
Solutions
Q069
A solution showing a negative deviation from Raoult's law forms
  1. (A)A minimum boiling azeotrope
  2. (B)A maximum boiling azeotrope
  3. (C)No azeotrope
  4. (D)An ideal solution
Solutions
Q070
The quantity of electricity required to deposit one mole of aluminium from molten Al₂O₃ is
  1. (A)1 F
  2. (B)2 F
  3. (C)3 F
  4. (D)6 F
Electrochemistry
Q071
In a hydrogen–oxygen fuel cell, the electrolyte commonly used is
  1. (A)Dilute H₂SO₄
  2. (B)Aqueous KOH
  3. (C)Molten NaCl
  4. (D)Solid AgCl
Electrochemistry
Q072
For a reaction, doubling the concentration of a reactant leaves the rate unchanged. The order with respect to that reactant is
  1. (A)Zero
  2. (B)One
  3. (C)Two
  4. (D)Half
Chemical Kinetics
Q073
The half-life of a zero-order reaction is given by
  1. (A)0.693/k
  2. (B)[A]₀/2k
  3. (C)2k/[A]₀
  4. (D)1/k[A]₀
Chemical Kinetics
Q074
Transition metal ions are usually coloured because of
  1. (A)s–p transitions
  2. (B)d–d electronic transitions
  3. (C)Charge on the nucleus
  4. (D)Large atomic size
d- and f-Block Elements
Q075
Among the lanthanoids, the element that commonly shows the +4 oxidation state is
  1. (A)La
  2. (B)Ce
  3. (C)Gd
  4. (D)Lu
d- and f-Block Elements
Q076
In acidic medium, potassium dichromate oxidises Fe²⁺ to Fe³⁺ and is itself reduced to
  1. (A)Cr²⁺
  2. (B)Cr³⁺
  3. (C)CrO₄²⁻
  4. (D)Cr metal
d- and f-Block Elements
Q077
In the spectrochemical series, the ligand producing the largest crystal field splitting among the following is
  1. (A)I⁻
  2. (B)H₂O
  3. (C)NH₃
  4. (D)CO
Coordination Compounds
Q078
[Co(NH₃)₅SO₄]Br and [Co(NH₃)₅Br]SO₄ are
  1. (A)Linkage isomers
  2. (B)Ionisation isomers
  3. (C)Coordination isomers
  4. (D)Geometrical isomers
Coordination Compounds
Q079
The oxidation state and coordination number of iron in [Fe(C₂O₄)₃]³⁻ are
  1. (A)+3 and 3
  2. (B)+3 and 6
  3. (C)+2 and 6
  4. (D)+6 and 3
Coordination Compounds
Q080
An SN2 reaction at a chiral carbon proceeds with
  1. (A)Retention of configuration
  2. (B)Inversion of configuration
  3. (C)Racemisation
  4. (D)No stereochemical change
Haloalkanes & Haloarenes
Q081
Chloroform is stored in dark coloured bottles filled to the brim because on exposure to air and light it forms
  1. (A)Carbon tetrachloride
  2. (B)Phosgene
  3. (C)Chloral
  4. (D)Methanol
Haloalkanes & Haloarenes
Q082
Phenol reacts with bromine water to give
  1. (A)o-Bromophenol
  2. (B)p-Bromophenol
  3. (C)2,4,6-Tribromophenol
  4. (D)Bromobenzene
Alcohols, Phenols & Ethers
Q083
Oxidation of a secondary alcohol with acidified potassium dichromate gives
  1. (A)An aldehyde
  2. (B)A ketone
  3. (C)A carboxylic acid
  4. (D)An ether
Alcohols, Phenols & Ethers
Q084
Clemmensen reduction of propanone gives
  1. (A)Propan-2-ol
  2. (B)Propane
  3. (C)Propene
  4. (D)Propanoic acid
Aldehydes, Ketones & Carboxylic Acids
Q085
The correct order of reactivity towards nucleophilic addition is
  1. (A)CH₃COCH₃ > CH₃CHO > HCHO
  2. (B)HCHO > CH₃CHO > CH₃COCH₃
  3. (C)CH₃CHO > HCHO > CH₃COCH₃
  4. (D)All react equally
Aldehydes, Ketones & Carboxylic Acids
Q086
Heating sodium ethanoate with soda lime gives
  1. (A)Ethane
  2. (B)Methane
  3. (C)Ethanol
  4. (D)Ethanal
Aldehydes, Ketones & Carboxylic Acids
Q087
In the gaseous phase, the order of basicity of amines is
  1. (A)NH₃ > 1° > 2° > 3°
  2. (B)3° > 2° > 1° > NH₃
  3. (C)2° > 1° > 3° > NH₃
  4. (D)1° > 2° > 3° > NH₃
Amines
Q088
Gabriel phthalimide synthesis is used to prepare
  1. (A)Aromatic primary amines
  2. (B)Aliphatic primary amines
  3. (C)Secondary amines
  4. (D)Tertiary amines
Amines
Q089
The storage polysaccharide of animals is
  1. (A)Starch
  2. (B)Cellulose
  3. (C)Glycogen
  4. (D)Inulin
Biomolecules
Q090
Deficiency of vitamin C in the diet causes
  1. (A)Beri-beri
  2. (B)Scurvy
  3. (C)Rickets
  4. (D)Night blindness
Biomolecules

Botany

Section C  ·  45 questions  ·  180 marks
Q091
The correct sequence of taxonomic categories from lower to higher is
  1. (A)Species, genus, family, order, class, phylum, kingdom
  2. (B)Species, genus, order, family, class, phylum, kingdom
  3. (C)Genus, species, family, order, class, kingdom, phylum
  4. (D)Species, family, genus, order, class, phylum, kingdom
The Living World
Q092
Slime moulds are
  1. (A)Prokaryotic decomposers
  2. (B)Saprophytic protists forming a plasmodium
  3. (C)Parasitic fungi
  4. (D)Photosynthetic algae
Biological Classification
Q093
Nitrifying bacteria such as Nitrosomonas are
  1. (A)Photosynthetic autotrophs
  2. (B)Chemosynthetic autotrophs
  3. (C)Saprophytes
  4. (D)Obligate parasites
Biological Classification
Q094
In a lichen, the fungal partner is called the
  1. (A)Phycobiont
  2. (B)Mycobiont
  3. (C)Symbiont
  4. (D)Endophyte
Biological Classification
Q095
Heterospory, an important evolutionary step, is shown by
  1. (A)Funaria and Marchantia
  2. (B)Selaginella and Salvinia
  3. (C)Riccia and Sphagnum
  4. (D)Equisetum and Lycopodium
Plant Kingdom
Q096
In Chlorophyceae, the stored food and the main cell wall material are respectively
  1. (A)Mannitol and algin
  2. (B)Starch and cellulose
  3. (C)Floridean starch and cellulose
  4. (D)Laminarin and pectin
Plant Kingdom
Q097
Whorled phyllotaxy is seen in
  1. (A)China rose
  2. (B)Calotropis
  3. (C)Alstonia
  4. (D)Mustard
Morphology of Flowering Plants
Q098
Epipetalous stamens and axile placentation are characteristic of the family
  1. (A)Fabaceae
  2. (B)Solanaceae
  3. (C)Liliaceae
  4. (D)Brassicaceae
Morphology of Flowering Plants
Q099
Ginger and turmeric are examples of
  1. (A)Tuber
  2. (B)Rhizome
  3. (C)Corm
  4. (D)Bulb
Morphology of Flowering Plants
Q100
The xylem in a dicot root is
  1. (A)Endarch
  2. (B)Exarch
  3. (C)Mesarch
  4. (D)Centrarch
Anatomy of Flowering Plants
Q101
The periderm consists of
  1. (A)Phellem, phellogen and phelloderm
  2. (B)Only cork cambium
  3. (C)Xylem and phloem
  4. (D)Epidermis and cortex
Anatomy of Flowering Plants
Q102
Sclerenchyma cells are
  1. (A)Living with thin walls
  2. (B)Dead with thick lignified walls
  3. (C)Living with cellulosic thickenings at corners
  4. (D)Photosynthetic
Anatomy of Flowering Plants
Q103
Mesosomes in a prokaryotic cell are formed by
  1. (A)Invaginations of the plasma membrane
  2. (B)Extensions of the nucleoid
  3. (C)Folding of the cell wall
  4. (D)Aggregation of ribosomes
Cell: The Unit of Life
Q104
The Golgi apparatus is mainly concerned with
  1. (A)Protein synthesis
  2. (B)Packaging, modification and dispatch of materials
  3. (C)Lipid digestion
  4. (D)Photosynthesis
Cell: The Unit of Life
Q105
Histone proteins associated with DNA are
  1. (A)Negatively charged
  2. (B)Positively charged due to lysine and arginine
  3. (C)Neutral
  4. (D)Acidic due to aspartate
Cell: The Unit of Life
Q106
Enzymes that catalyse the transfer of a group from one substrate to another belong to the class
  1. (A)Oxidoreductases
  2. (B)Transferases
  3. (C)Hydrolases
  4. (D)Lyases
Biomolecules
Q107
The glycosidic linkage in cellulose is
  1. (A)α-1,4
  2. (B)β-1,4
  3. (C)α-1,6
  4. (D)β-1,6
Biomolecules
Q108
In meiosis, the chromosome number is halved because
  1. (A)DNA replicates twice and there is one division
  2. (B)DNA replicates once and there are two successive nuclear divisions
  3. (C)There is no DNA replication
  4. (D)Chromatids do not separate
Cell Cycle & Cell Division
Q109
Cytokinesis in plant cells occurs by
  1. (A)Furrowing of the plasma membrane
  2. (B)Cell plate formation
  3. (C)Fragmentation of the nucleus
  4. (D)Budding
Cell Cycle & Cell Division
Q110
Photolysis of water during photosynthesis is associated with
  1. (A)Photosystem I
  2. (B)Photosystem II
  3. (C)The Calvin cycle
  4. (D)The cytochrome complex
Photosynthesis
Q111
Cyclic photophosphorylation results in the synthesis of
  1. (A)ATP only
  2. (B)NADPH only
  3. (C)Both ATP and NADPH
  4. (D)Oxygen only
Photosynthesis
Q112
The most abundant enzyme in the biosphere is
  1. (A)PEP carboxylase
  2. (B)RuBisCO
  3. (C)ATP synthase
  4. (D)Nitrogenase
Photosynthesis
Q113
In CAM plants such as pineapple, stomata
  1. (A)Open during the day and close at night
  2. (B)Open at night and close during the day
  3. (C)Remain open always
  4. (D)Remain closed always
Photosynthesis
Q114
One turn of the Krebs cycle yields
  1. (A)3 NADH, 1 FADH₂ and 1 GTP
  2. (B)2 NADH, 2 FADH₂ and 1 ATP
  3. (C)4 NADH and 2 GTP
  4. (D)1 NADH, 1 FADH₂ and 2 ATP
Respiration in Plants
Q115
Fermentation of glucose by yeast produces
  1. (A)Lactic acid
  2. (B)Ethanol and CO₂
  3. (C)Acetyl CoA
  4. (D)Pyruvate only
Respiration in Plants
Q116
Apical dominance in plants is caused by
  1. (A)Auxin produced at the shoot apex
  2. (B)Cytokinin from the roots
  3. (C)Ethylene from ripening fruits
  4. (D)Abscisic acid in the leaves
Plant Growth & Development
Q117
Gibberellins are used in the brewing industry to
  1. (A)Delay ripening
  2. (B)Speed up the malting process
  3. (C)Induce dormancy
  4. (D)Cause abscission
Plant Growth & Development
Q118
Microsporogenesis is the process of formation of
  1. (A)Embryo sac from megaspore
  2. (B)Microspores from the pollen mother cell by meiosis
  3. (C)Pollen tube from pollen grain
  4. (D)Endosperm from PEN
Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants
Q119
Entry of the pollen tube into the ovule through the micropyle is called
  1. (A)Chalazogamy
  2. (B)Mesogamy
  3. (C)Porogamy
  4. (D)Syngamy
Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants
Q120
Double fertilisation involves
  1. (A)Two syngamies
  2. (B)Syngamy and triple fusion
  3. (C)Two triple fusions
  4. (D)Fusion of two polar nuclei only
Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants
Q121
Apple and strawberry are examples of
  1. (A)True fruits
  2. (B)False fruits
  3. (C)Parthenocarpic fruits
  4. (D)Aggregate fruits only
Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants
Q122
Mendel's law of segregation states that
  1. (A)Alleles of different genes assort independently
  2. (B)The two alleles of a gene separate during gamete formation
  3. (C)Dominant alleles are always expressed together
  4. (D)Genes are located on chromosomes
Principles of Inheritance
Q123
Human skin colour is an example of
  1. (A)Codominance
  2. (B)Polygenic inheritance
  3. (C)Incomplete dominance
  4. (D)Pleiotropy
Principles of Inheritance
Q124
Sickle cell anaemia results from the substitution of
  1. (A)Valine by glutamic acid at position 6 of the α chain
  2. (B)Glutamic acid by valine at position 6 of the β chain
  3. (C)Lysine by valine at position 6 of the β chain
  4. (D)Glycine by alanine in the α chain
Principles of Inheritance
Q125
Turner's syndrome is characterised by the karyotype
  1. (A)47, XXY
  2. (B)45, XO
  3. (C)47, XYY
  4. (D)47, +21
Principles of Inheritance
Q126
Semiconservative replication of DNA was experimentally proved in E. coli by
  1. (A)Griffith
  2. (B)Hershey and Chase
  3. (C)Meselson and Stahl
  4. (D)Taylor
Molecular Basis of Inheritance
Q127
In prokaryotes, the enzyme that catalyses the synthesis of all types of RNA is
  1. (A)RNA polymerase I
  2. (B)RNA polymerase II
  3. (C)A single RNA polymerase
  4. (D)DNA polymerase III
Molecular Basis of Inheritance
Q128
tRNA is called the adaptor molecule because it
  1. (A)Carries the genetic code
  2. (B)Reads the codon on mRNA at one end and carries the amino acid at the other
  3. (C)Forms the ribosome
  4. (D)Replicates DNA
Molecular Basis of Inheritance
Q129
The chain terminating codons are
  1. (A)AUG, GUG, UUG
  2. (B)UAA, UAG, UGA
  3. (C)AAA, GGG, CCC
  4. (D)AUG only
Molecular Basis of Inheritance
Q130
Gause's competitive exclusion principle states that
  1. (A)Two species can always coexist
  2. (B)Two closely related species competing for the same limiting resource cannot coexist indefinitely
  3. (C)Predators always eliminate prey
  4. (D)Competition never affects populations
Organisms & Populations
Q131
A population with a broad-based age pyramid indicates
  1. (A)A declining population
  2. (B)A stable population
  3. (C)An expanding population
  4. (D)A population at carrying capacity
Organisms & Populations
Q132
Energy flow in an ecosystem is
  1. (A)Cyclic
  2. (B)Unidirectional
  3. (C)Bidirectional
  4. (D)Random
Ecosystem
Q133
The mass of living material at a trophic level at a given time is called
  1. (A)Standing state
  2. (B)Standing crop
  3. (C)Productivity
  4. (D)Biomagnification
Ecosystem
Q134
Species diversity is generally highest
  1. (A)At the poles
  2. (B)In temperate regions
  3. (C)In the tropics
  4. (D)At high altitudes
Biodiversity & Conservation
Q135
Cryopreservation of gametes and tissue culture are methods of
  1. (A)In situ conservation
  2. (B)Ex situ conservation
  3. (C)Hotspot protection
  4. (D)Sacred grove management
Biodiversity & Conservation

Zoology

Section D  ·  45 questions  ·  180 marks
Q136
Aschelminthes (roundworms) are
  1. (A)Acoelomate
  2. (B)Pseudocoelomate
  3. (C)Truly coelomate
  4. (D)Diploblastic
Animal Kingdom
Q137
A rasping organ called the radula is characteristic of
  1. (A)Annelida
  2. (B)Mollusca
  3. (C)Arthropoda
  4. (D)Echinodermata
Animal Kingdom
Q138
Which of the following is a characteristic of amphibians?
  1. (A)Body covered with scales
  2. (B)Moist skin without scales and a three-chambered heart
  3. (C)Four-chambered heart
  4. (D)Presence of an air bladder
Animal Kingdom
Q139
The egg-laying mammal among the following is
  1. (A)Macropus
  2. (B)Ornithorhynchus
  3. (C)Pteropus
  4. (D)Balaenoptera
Animal Kingdom
Q140
The epithelium lining the alveoli of the lungs is
  1. (A)Simple squamous
  2. (B)Simple cuboidal
  3. (C)Stratified squamous
  4. (D)Ciliated columnar
Structural Organisation in Animals
Q141
The blood of a cockroach is
  1. (A)Red and carries oxygen
  2. (B)Colourless and does not carry oxygen
  3. (C)Blue due to haemocyanin
  4. (D)Green due to chlorocruorin
Structural Organisation in Animals
Q142
The tidal volume of a healthy human adult is about
  1. (A)150 mL
  2. (B)500 mL
  3. (C)1200 mL
  4. (D)2500 mL
Breathing & Exchange of Gases
Q143
The enzyme carbonic anhydrase, important in CO₂ transport, is present in high concentration in
  1. (A)Plasma
  2. (B)Red blood cells
  3. (C)Alveolar epithelium
  4. (D)Platelets
Breathing & Exchange of Gases
Q144
The respiratory rhythm centre is located in the
  1. (A)Cerebrum
  2. (B)Medulla oblongata
  3. (C)Cerebellum
  4. (D)Hypothalamus
Breathing & Exchange of Gases
Q145
If the stroke volume is 70 mL and the heart rate is 72 per minute, the cardiac output is approximately
  1. (A)1 L per minute
  2. (B)3 L per minute
  3. (C)5 L per minute
  4. (D)7 L per minute
Body Fluids & Circulation
Q146
The average life span of a human erythrocyte is about
  1. (A)20 days
  2. (B)60 days
  3. (C)120 days
  4. (D)240 days
Body Fluids & Circulation
Q147
A person is said to be hypertensive when the blood pressure repeatedly exceeds
  1. (A)120/80 mm Hg
  2. (B)130/85 mm Hg
  3. (C)140/90 mm Hg
  4. (D)160/110 mm Hg
Body Fluids & Circulation
Q148
Ammonotelism is seen in
  1. (A)Birds
  2. (B)Bony fishes and aquatic amphibians
  3. (C)Land reptiles
  4. (D)Mammals
Excretory Products
Q149
A long loop of Henle extending deep into the medulla is a feature of
  1. (A)Cortical nephrons
  2. (B)Juxtamedullary nephrons
  3. (C)All nephrons equally
  4. (D)The collecting duct
Excretory Products
Q150
Atrial natriuretic factor causes
  1. (A)Vasoconstriction and rise in blood pressure
  2. (B)Vasodilation and fall in blood pressure
  3. (C)Increased water reabsorption
  4. (D)Release of renin
Excretory Products
Q151
During muscle contraction, calcium ions bind to
  1. (A)Myosin head
  2. (B)Troponin on the actin filament
  3. (C)Tropomyosin directly
  4. (D)The sarcolemma
Locomotion & Movement
Q152
Osteoporosis in older women is commonly associated with
  1. (A)Excess calcium intake
  2. (B)Decreased levels of oestrogen
  3. (C)Increased thyroxine
  4. (D)Vitamin C deficiency
Locomotion & Movement
Q153
In humans, the number of floating ribs is
  1. (A)One pair
  2. (B)Two pairs
  3. (C)Three pairs
  4. (D)Five pairs
Locomotion & Movement
Q154
The organ of Corti, which contains hair cells, is located in the
  1. (A)Vestibule
  2. (B)Cochlea
  3. (C)Semicircular canals
  4. (D)Tympanic membrane
Neural Control & Coordination
Q155
Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system
  1. (A)Decreases heart rate and constricts pupils
  2. (B)Increases heart rate and dilates pupils
  3. (C)Increases peristalsis
  4. (D)Stimulates salivation
Neural Control & Coordination
Q156
In a reflex arc, the impulse is carried from the receptor to the spinal cord by
  1. (A)An efferent neuron
  2. (B)An afferent neuron
  3. (C)An interneuron only
  4. (D)A motor neuron
Neural Control & Coordination
Q157
Parathyroid hormone
  1. (A)Lowers blood calcium
  2. (B)Raises blood calcium by bone resorption
  3. (C)Lowers blood glucose
  4. (D)Raises blood potassium
Chemical Coordination
Q158
Adrenaline and noradrenaline are secreted by the
  1. (A)Adrenal cortex
  2. (B)Adrenal medulla
  3. (C)Thyroid gland
  4. (D)Pineal gland
Chemical Coordination
Q159
Diabetes insipidus results from the deficiency of
  1. (A)Insulin
  2. (B)Antidiuretic hormone
  3. (C)Thyroxine
  4. (D)Aldosterone
Chemical Coordination
Q160
The scrotum helps in spermatogenesis by maintaining a temperature
  1. (A)Equal to body temperature
  2. (B)About 2–2.5 °C lower than body temperature
  3. (C)About 5 °C higher than body temperature
  4. (D)That fluctuates widely
Human Reproduction
Q161
In human females, the formation of primary oocytes
  1. (A)Begins at puberty
  2. (B)Is completed during embryonic development
  3. (C)Continues throughout life
  4. (D)Occurs after each menstrual cycle
Human Reproduction
Q162
The secondary oocyte completes the second meiotic division
  1. (A)Before ovulation
  2. (B)Only after the entry of the sperm
  3. (C)At the time of implantation
  4. (D)During the follicular phase
Human Reproduction
Q163
Colostrum is important for the newborn because it is rich in
  1. (A)Fat and carbohydrate
  2. (B)Antibodies, especially IgA
  3. (C)Iron and calcium
  4. (D)Vitamin D
Human Reproduction
Q164
Which of the following sexually transmitted infections is NOT completely curable?
  1. (A)Gonorrhoea
  2. (B)Syphilis
  3. (C)Chlamydiasis
  4. (D)Genital herpes
Reproductive Health
Q165
LNG-20 and Progestasert are examples of
  1. (A)Non-medicated IUDs
  2. (B)Copper releasing IUDs
  3. (C)Hormone releasing IUDs
  4. (D)Barrier methods
Reproductive Health
Q166
In the test tube baby programme, the embryo up to the 8-blastomere stage is transferred into the
  1. (A)Uterus
  2. (B)Fallopian tube
  3. (C)Ovary
  4. (D)Cervix
Reproductive Health
Q167
Lamarck's theory is best summarised as
  1. (A)Survival of the fittest
  2. (B)Inheritance of acquired characters
  3. (C)Mutation as the source of variation
  4. (D)Reproductive isolation
Evolution
Q168
Which of the following does NOT disturb Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium?
  1. (A)Gene flow
  2. (B)Genetic drift
  3. (C)Random mating in a large population
  4. (D)Natural selection
Evolution
Q169
Selection that favours both extreme phenotypes over the mean is called
  1. (A)Stabilising selection
  2. (B)Directional selection
  3. (C)Disruptive selection
  4. (D)Sexual selection
Evolution
Q170
The approximate cranial capacity of Neanderthal man was
  1. (A)650 cc
  2. (B)900 cc
  3. (C)1400 cc
  4. (D)1650 cc
Evolution
Q171
Typhoid fever is confirmed by
  1. (A)The ELISA test
  2. (B)The Widal test
  3. (C)A blood smear for parasites
  4. (D)The Mantoux test
Human Health & Disease
Q172
Elephantiasis or filariasis is caused by
  1. (A)Ascaris lumbricoides
  2. (B)Wuchereria bancrofti
  3. (C)Plasmodium vivax
  4. (D)Trichophyton
Human Health & Disease
Q173
Allergic reactions are mediated by the antibody
  1. (A)IgG
  2. (B)IgA
  3. (C)IgE
  4. (D)IgM
Human Health & Disease
Q174
Vaccination produces
  1. (A)Passive immunity
  2. (B)Active immunity with memory cells
  3. (C)Innate immunity
  4. (D)Autoimmunity
Human Health & Disease
Q175
Heroin, a highly addictive drug, is chemically
  1. (A)Diacetylmorphine, a depressant
  2. (B)A cannabinoid stimulant
  3. (C)Cocaine derivative
  4. (D)An amphetamine
Human Health & Disease
Q176
In the plasmid pBR322, insertion of foreign DNA at the BamHI site inactivates the gene for
  1. (A)Ampicillin resistance
  2. (B)Tetracycline resistance
  3. (C)The origin of replication
  4. (D)β-galactosidase
Biotechnology – Principles
Q177
Agrobacterium tumefaciens is called nature's genetic engineer because it
  1. (A)Produces restriction enzymes
  2. (B)Transfers T-DNA of its Ti plasmid into plant cells
  3. (C)Makes plasmids for bacteria
  4. (D)Synthesises insulin
Biotechnology – Principles
Q178
Competent bacterial cells for transformation are usually prepared by treating them with
  1. (A)Sodium chloride
  2. (B)Divalent calcium ions
  3. (C)Ethidium bromide
  4. (D)Agarose
Biotechnology – Principles
Q179
The Bt gene incorporated into Bt cotton to protect it against bollworms is
  1. (A)cry IAb
  2. (B)cry IAc and cry IIAb
  3. (C)cry IIIA
  4. (D)cry IIIB
Biotechnology – Applications
Q180
Rosie, the first transgenic cow, produced milk enriched in
  1. (A)Casein
  2. (B)Human alpha-lactalbumin
  3. (C)Lactose
  4. (D)Immunoglobulin G only
Biotechnology – Applications