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Most-Expected Paper — Set 2

Full-syllabus NEET pattern paper built on recurring question types from past NEET papers and the rationalised NCERT syllabus. All 180 questions are compulsory.

Questions
180
Marks
720
Duration
200 min
Marking
+4 / −1
Set
2
Instructions. Attempt all 180 questions. Each correct answer earns +4; each incorrect answer costs −1; unattempted questions score 0. Only one option is correct. Use of calculators is not permitted. Mark the answer sheet before checking the key — leave a question blank only when you truly cannot narrow it to two options.

Physics

Section A  ·  45 questions  ·  180 marks
Q001
Which of the following pairs has the same dimensional formula?
  1. (A)Work and power
  2. (B)Torque and work
  3. (C)Force and momentum
  4. (D)Impulse and energy
Units & Dimensions
Q002
The number of significant figures in 0.00250 is
  1. (A)2
  2. (B)3
  3. (C)5
  4. (D)6
Errors & Significant Figures
Q003
A body starting from rest moves with uniform acceleration. The distances covered in the 1st, 2nd and 3rd seconds are in the ratio
  1. (A)1 : 2 : 3
  2. (B)1 : 3 : 5
  3. (C)1 : 4 : 9
  4. (D)1 : 1 : 1
Kinematics
Q004
A body is dropped from rest and reaches the ground in 4 s. The distance it covers during the last second of its fall is (g = 10 m s⁻²)
  1. (A)5 m
  2. (B)20 m
  3. (C)35 m
  4. (D)80 m
Kinematics
Q005
A ball of mass 0.15 kg strikes a wall normally at 20 m s⁻¹ and rebounds with the same speed. The impulse imparted to the ball is
  1. (A)Zero
  2. (B)3 N s
  3. (C)6 N s
  4. (D)30 N s
Laws of Motion
Q006
Two blocks of 3 kg and 2 kg, connected by a light string, rest on a smooth surface. A force of 10 N pulls the 3 kg block. The tension in the string is
  1. (A)2 N
  2. (B)4 N
  3. (C)6 N
  4. (D)10 N
Laws of Motion
Q007
A bullet of mass 10 g moving at 400 m s⁻¹ penetrates 20 cm into a wooden block. The average retarding force is
  1. (A)400 N
  2. (B)2000 N
  3. (C)4000 N
  4. (D)8000 N
Work, Energy & Power
Q008
A torque of 4 N m acts on a body of moment of inertia 2 kg m². The angular acceleration produced is
  1. (A)0.5 rad s⁻²
  2. (B)2 rad s⁻²
  3. (C)4 rad s⁻²
  4. (D)8 rad s⁻²
Rotational Motion
Q009
The radius of gyration of a solid sphere of radius R about its diameter is
  1. (A)R
  2. (B)√(2/5) R
  3. (C)√(2/3) R
  4. (D)R/2
Rotational Motion
Q010
A ballet dancer spinning on her toes folds her arms inwards. As a result
  1. (A)Angular velocity decreases
  2. (B)Angular momentum increases
  3. (C)Angular velocity increases
  4. (D)Kinetic energy decreases
Rotational Motion
Q011
The escape velocity from the earth is 11.2 km s⁻¹. For a planet of the same density but twice the radius, the escape velocity is
  1. (A)5.6 km s⁻¹
  2. (B)11.2 km s⁻¹
  3. (C)22.4 km s⁻¹
  4. (D)44.8 km s⁻¹
Gravitation
Q012
Kepler's second law (equal areas in equal times) is a direct consequence of the conservation of
  1. (A)Linear momentum
  2. (B)Angular momentum
  3. (C)Energy
  4. (D)Mass
Gravitation
Q013
The elastic potential energy stored per unit volume of a stretched wire is
  1. (A)Stress × strain
  2. (B)½ × stress × strain
  3. (C)2 × stress × strain
  4. (D)Stress/strain
Elasticity
Q014
If the radius of a spherical drop falling through a viscous medium is doubled, its terminal velocity becomes
  1. (A)Twice
  2. (B)Four times
  3. (C)Eight times
  4. (D)Half
Fluids
Q015
If the absolute temperature of a black body is doubled, the energy radiated per unit area per second becomes
  1. (A)2 times
  2. (B)4 times
  3. (C)8 times
  4. (D)16 times
Thermal Properties
Q016
The work done by n moles of an ideal gas in a reversible isothermal expansion from V₁ to V₂ is
  1. (A)nR(T₂ − T₁)
  2. (B)nRT ln(V₂/V₁)
  3. (C)P(V₂ − V₁)
  4. (D)Zero
Thermodynamics
Q017
In a cyclic process, the change in internal energy of the system is
  1. (A)Equal to the work done
  2. (B)Zero
  3. (C)Equal to the heat absorbed
  4. (D)Always negative
Thermodynamics
Q018
The average kinetic energy of a gas molecule depends only on
  1. (A)Pressure
  2. (B)Volume
  3. (C)Absolute temperature
  4. (D)Molecular mass
Kinetic Theory
Q019
The time period of a simple pendulum in a lift accelerating upwards with acceleration a
  1. (A)Increases
  2. (B)Decreases
  3. (C)Remains unchanged
  4. (D)Becomes infinite
Oscillations
Q020
For a particle executing SHM, the acceleration is maximum
  1. (A)At the mean position
  2. (B)At the extreme positions
  3. (C)At half the amplitude
  4. (D)Everywhere the same
Oscillations
Q021
Two tuning forks of frequencies 256 Hz and 260 Hz are sounded together. The number of beats heard per second is
  1. (A)2
  2. (B)4
  3. (C)8
  4. (D)516
Waves
Q022
The tension in a stretched string is increased four times keeping length and mass per unit length constant. Its fundamental frequency becomes
  1. (A)Half
  2. (B)Twice
  3. (C)Four times
  4. (D)Unchanged
Waves
Q023
The force between two charges placed in a medium of dielectric constant K, compared with that in vacuum, is
  1. (A)K times greater
  2. (B)K times smaller
  3. (C)K² times greater
  4. (D)Unchanged
Electrostatics
Q024
The work done in moving a charge from one point to another on an equipotential surface is
  1. (A)qV
  2. (B)Zero
  3. (C)Infinite
  4. (D)q²V
Electrostatics
Q025
Three capacitors of 3 μF each are connected in series. The equivalent capacitance is
  1. (A)1 μF
  2. (B)3 μF
  3. (C)6 μF
  4. (D)9 μF
Capacitors
Q026
With rise in temperature, the resistivity of a semiconductor
  1. (A)Increases
  2. (B)Decreases
  3. (C)Remains constant
  4. (D)First increases then decreases
Current Electricity
Q027
Two identical cells, each of emf 2 V and internal resistance 1 Ω, are connected in parallel across an external resistance of 2 Ω. The current through the external resistance is
  1. (A)0.5 A
  2. (B)0.8 A
  3. (C)1.0 A
  4. (D)2.0 A
Current Electricity
Q028
A wire of resistance R is stretched uniformly so that its length becomes double. Its new resistance is
  1. (A)R/2
  2. (B)2R
  3. (C)4R
  4. (D)R/4
Current Electricity
Q029
A charged particle moving parallel to a uniform magnetic field experiences
  1. (A)Maximum force
  2. (B)Zero force
  3. (C)A force qvB
  4. (D)A force that reverses its motion
Moving Charges & Magnetism
Q030
For a charged particle moving in a circular path in a uniform magnetic field, the time period is
  1. (A)Proportional to speed
  2. (B)Inversely proportional to speed
  3. (C)Independent of speed
  4. (D)Proportional to radius squared
Moving Charges & Magnetism
Q031
The torque on a rectangular current loop of N turns and area A in a magnetic field B is maximum when the plane of the loop is
  1. (A)Perpendicular to B
  2. (B)Parallel to B
  3. (C)At 45° to B
  4. (D)Any orientation
Moving Charges & Magnetism
Q032
According to Curie's law, the magnetic susceptibility of a paramagnetic substance
  1. (A)Is independent of temperature
  2. (B)Is proportional to temperature
  3. (C)Is inversely proportional to absolute temperature
  4. (D)Is always negative
Magnetism & Matter
Q033
Lenz's law is a direct consequence of the conservation of
  1. (A)Charge
  2. (B)Momentum
  3. (C)Energy
  4. (D)Magnetic flux
Electromagnetic Induction
Q034
Two coils have a mutual inductance of 0.5 H. If the current in the first coil changes at 20 A s⁻¹, the emf induced in the second coil is
  1. (A)1 V
  2. (B)5 V
  3. (C)10 V
  4. (D)40 V
Electromagnetic Induction
Q035
The peak value of an alternating current is 4 A. Its rms value is
  1. (A)2 A
  2. (B)2.83 A
  3. (C)4 A
  4. (D)5.66 A
Alternating Current
Q036
In a circuit containing a pure inductor, the average power consumed over a complete cycle is
  1. (A)Maximum
  2. (B)Zero
  3. (C)I²R
  4. (D)V I
Alternating Current
Q037
Among the following, the electromagnetic radiation with the longest wavelength is
  1. (A)X-rays
  2. (B)Ultraviolet rays
  3. (C)Infrared rays
  4. (D)Radio waves
Electromagnetic Waves
Q038
An object is placed at the centre of curvature of a concave mirror. The image formed is
  1. (A)Virtual, erect and magnified
  2. (B)Real, inverted and of the same size
  3. (C)Real, inverted and diminished
  4. (D)At infinity
Ray Optics
Q039
A coin lies at the bottom of a tank of water (μ = 4/3) filled to a depth of 12 cm. Its apparent depth is
  1. (A)6 cm
  2. (B)9 cm
  3. (C)12 cm
  4. (D)16 cm
Ray Optics
Q040
Sustained interference of light requires that the two sources be
  1. (A)Of different frequencies
  2. (B)Coherent with a constant phase difference
  3. (C)Of equal intensity only
  4. (D)Very far apart
Wave Optics
Q041
In single slit diffraction, the angular width of the central maximum is
  1. (A)λ/a
  2. (B)2λ/a
  3. (C)λ/2a
  4. (D)a/λ
Wave Optics
Q042
The work function of a metal is 2.0 eV. Its threshold wavelength is nearly
  1. (A)310 nm
  2. (B)620 nm
  3. (C)1240 nm
  4. (D)155 nm
Dual Nature of Matter
Q043
After three half-lives, the fraction of a radioactive sample that remains undecayed is
  1. (A)1/3
  2. (B)1/6
  3. (C)1/8
  4. (D)1/9
Nuclei
Q044
In the Bohr model of the hydrogen atom, the radius of the third orbit is nearly
  1. (A)0.53 Å
  2. (B)1.59 Å
  3. (C)4.77 Å
  4. (D)9.54 Å
Atoms
Q045
A Zener diode used as a voltage regulator is always operated in
  1. (A)Forward bias
  2. (B)Reverse bias beyond the breakdown voltage
  3. (C)Unbiased condition
  4. (D)Reverse bias below breakdown
Semiconductors

Chemistry

Section B  ·  45 questions  ·  180 marks
Q046
The number of moles of oxygen atoms present in 0.5 mole of H₂SO₄ is
  1. (A)0.5
  2. (B)1.0
  3. (C)2.0
  4. (D)4.0
Some Basic Concepts
Q047
One mole of N₂ reacts with 2 moles of H₂ according to N₂ + 3H₂ → 2NH₃. The maximum amount of NH₃ formed is
  1. (A)1.00 mol
  2. (B)1.33 mol
  3. (C)2.00 mol
  4. (D)0.67 mol
Some Basic Concepts
Q048
The radius of the third Bohr orbit of the hydrogen atom is approximately
  1. (A)0.529 Å
  2. (B)1.587 Å
  3. (C)2.116 Å
  4. (D)4.761 Å
Structure of Atom
Q049
Which of the following sets of quantum numbers is NOT permissible?
  1. (A)n = 3, l = 2, m = −2
  2. (B)n = 3, l = 0, m = 0
  3. (C)n = 3, l = 3, m = +1
  4. (D)n = 2, l = 1, m = 0
Structure of Atom
Q050
The element with the most negative electron gain enthalpy is
  1. (A)F
  2. (B)Cl
  3. (C)Br
  4. (D)I
Classification & Periodicity
Q051
An element with the outer configuration [Ne]3s²3p³ belongs to
  1. (A)Group 13, period 3
  2. (B)Group 15, period 3
  3. (C)Group 5, period 3
  4. (D)Group 15, period 2
Classification & Periodicity
Q052
According to VSEPR theory, the shape of ClF₃ is
  1. (A)Trigonal planar
  2. (B)Pyramidal
  3. (C)T-shaped
  4. (D)Tetrahedral
Chemical Bonding
Q053
Hydrogen fluoride has an abnormally high boiling point among the hydrogen halides because of
  1. (A)Its low molecular mass
  2. (B)Intermolecular hydrogen bonding
  3. (C)Its ionic character
  4. (D)van der Waals forces
Chemical Bonding
Q054
The carbon atoms in ethene are
  1. (A)sp hybridised
  2. (B)sp² hybridised
  3. (C)sp³ hybridised
  4. (D)Unhybridised
Chemical Bonding
Q055
The correct order of bond angles is
  1. (A)H₂O > NH₃ > BF₃
  2. (B)BF₃ > NH₃ > H₂O
  3. (C)NH₃ > BF₃ > H₂O
  4. (D)BF₃ > H₂O > NH₃
Chemical Bonding
Q056
The standard enthalpy of formation of an element in its most stable form is
  1. (A)Always positive
  2. (B)Always negative
  3. (C)Zero
  4. (D)Equal to its atomisation enthalpy
Thermodynamics
Q057
Which of the following is an intensive property?
  1. (A)Volume
  2. (B)Enthalpy
  3. (C)Temperature
  4. (D)Internal energy
Thermodynamics
Q058
For N₂(g) + 3H₂(g) ⇌ 2NH₃(g), increasing the pressure at constant temperature
  1. (A)Shifts the equilibrium backward
  2. (B)Shifts the equilibrium forward
  3. (C)Has no effect
  4. (D)Changes the value of Kp
Equilibrium
Q059
The solubility of AgCl in water decreases on adding NaCl. This is called
  1. (A)Buffer action
  2. (B)Common ion effect
  3. (C)Hydrolysis
  4. (D)Salting in
Equilibrium
Q060
The conjugate base of H₂PO₄⁻ is
  1. (A)H₃PO₄
  2. (B)HPO₄²⁻
  3. (C)PO₄³⁻
  4. (D)H₂PO₄⁻
Equilibrium
Q061
In the reaction Cl₂ + 2NaOH → NaCl + NaOCl + H₂O, chlorine undergoes
  1. (A)Only oxidation
  2. (B)Only reduction
  3. (C)Disproportionation
  4. (D)No change in oxidation state
Redox Reactions
Q062
Among the following, the strongest electron-withdrawing group is
  1. (A)–CH₃
  2. (B)–OCH₃
  3. (C)–NO₂
  4. (D)–NH₂
Organic Chemistry – Basic Principles
Q063
The number of chain isomers of C₅H₁₂ is
  1. (A)2
  2. (B)3
  3. (C)4
  4. (D)5
Organic Chemistry – Basic Principles
Q064
The technique used to separate two liquids with a large difference in boiling points is
  1. (A)Simple distillation
  2. (B)Steam distillation
  3. (C)Sublimation
  4. (D)Chromatography
Organic Chemistry – Basic Principles
Q065
The Wurtz reaction of ethyl bromide with sodium in dry ether gives
  1. (A)Ethane
  2. (B)Propane
  3. (C)n-Butane
  4. (D)Ethene
Hydrocarbons
Q066
Which of the following reacts with sodium metal to liberate hydrogen gas?
  1. (A)Ethane
  2. (B)Ethene
  3. (C)But-2-yne
  4. (D)But-1-yne
Hydrocarbons
Q067
Friedel–Crafts alkylation does NOT take place with
  1. (A)Benzene
  2. (B)Toluene
  3. (C)Nitrobenzene
  4. (D)Chlorobenzene
Hydrocarbons
Q068
The relative lowering of vapour pressure of a dilute solution is equal to the
  1. (A)Mole fraction of solvent
  2. (B)Mole fraction of solute
  3. (C)Molality of the solution
  4. (D)Molarity of the solution
Solutions
Q069
Which of the following has the maximum osmotic pressure at the same concentration and temperature?
  1. (A)Glucose
  2. (B)Sodium chloride
  3. (C)Calcium chloride
  4. (D)Urea
Solutions
Q070
In the electrochemical series, a metal placed above hydrogen
  1. (A)Cannot displace hydrogen from acids
  2. (B)Can displace hydrogen from dilute acids
  3. (C)Is a strong oxidising agent
  4. (D)Has a positive reduction potential
Electrochemistry
Q071
The conductivity of an electrolytic solution decreases on dilution because
  1. (A)The degree of dissociation decreases
  2. (B)The number of ions per unit volume decreases
  3. (C)The ionic mobility decreases
  4. (D)The temperature falls
Electrochemistry
Q072
Which of the following statements is correct?
  1. (A)Order is always equal to molecularity
  2. (B)Order can be zero or fractional
  3. (C)Molecularity can be zero
  4. (D)Order is never experimentally determined
Chemical Kinetics
Q073
For a zero-order reaction, a plot of concentration against time is
  1. (A)An exponential curve
  2. (B)A straight line with negative slope
  3. (C)A straight line through the origin
  4. (D)A hyperbola
Chemical Kinetics
Q074
A catalyst increases the rate of a reaction by
  1. (A)Increasing the activation energy
  2. (B)Providing an alternative path of lower activation energy
  3. (C)Changing the equilibrium constant
  4. (D)Increasing the enthalpy change
Chemical Kinetics
Q075
The oxidation state of manganese in the manganate ion MnO₄²⁻ is
  1. (A)+2
  2. (B)+4
  3. (C)+6
  4. (D)+7
d- and f-Block Elements
Q076
Which of the following ions acts as a strong reducing agent in aqueous solution?
  1. (A)Mn³⁺
  2. (B)Cr²⁺
  3. (C)Fe³⁺
  4. (D)Cu²⁺
d- and f-Block Elements
Q077
Interstitial compounds formed by transition metals are
  1. (A)Softer than the parent metal
  2. (B)Hard and chemically inert with high melting points
  3. (C)Good insulators
  4. (D)Always stoichiometric
d- and f-Block Elements
Q078
Geometrical isomerism is shown by
  1. (A)[Pt(NH₃)₂Cl₂]
  2. (B)[Co(NH₃)₆]³⁺
  3. (C)[Ni(CO)₄]
  4. (D)[Ag(NH₃)₂]⁺
Coordination Compounds
Q079
The complex [Ni(CN)₄]²⁻ is
  1. (A)Tetrahedral and paramagnetic
  2. (B)Square planar and diamagnetic
  3. (C)Octahedral and paramagnetic
  4. (D)Square planar and paramagnetic
Coordination Compounds
Q080
Ethylenediaminetetraacetate (EDTA) is a
  1. (A)Bidentate ligand
  2. (B)Tridentate ligand
  3. (C)Hexadentate ligand
  4. (D)Monodentate ligand
Coordination Compounds
Q081
Dehydrohalogenation of 2-bromobutane with alcoholic KOH gives mainly
  1. (A)But-1-ene
  2. (B)But-2-ene
  3. (C)Butan-2-ol
  4. (D)Buta-1,3-diene
Haloalkanes & Haloarenes
Q082
Chlorobenzene is less reactive than ethyl chloride towards nucleophilic substitution because
  1. (A)Of the +I effect of the ring
  2. (B)The C–Cl bond has partial double bond character due to resonance
  3. (C)Chlorine is more electronegative in chlorobenzene
  4. (D)Of steric hindrance
Haloalkanes & Haloarenes
Q083
The correct order of ease of dehydration of alcohols with conc. H₂SO₄ is
  1. (A)1° > 2° > 3°
  2. (B)3° > 2° > 1°
  3. (C)2° > 1° > 3°
  4. (D)All are equal
Alcohols, Phenols & Ethers
Q084
Williamson's synthesis of tert-butyl methyl ether is best carried out using
  1. (A)tert-Butyl bromide and sodium methoxide
  2. (B)Methyl bromide and sodium tert-butoxide
  3. (C)tert-Butyl alcohol and methanol
  4. (D)Methanol and tert-butyl chloride
Alcohols, Phenols & Ethers
Q085
Which compound undergoes the Cannizzaro reaction?
  1. (A)Ethanal
  2. (B)Propanal
  3. (C)Methanal
  4. (D)Butanal
Aldehydes, Ketones & Carboxylic Acids
Q086
Tollens' reagent is used to distinguish between
  1. (A)Aldehydes and ketones
  2. (B)Alcohols and phenols
  3. (C)Alkanes and alkenes
  4. (D)Primary and secondary amines
Aldehydes, Ketones & Carboxylic Acids
Q087
The Hell–Volhard–Zelinsky reaction introduces a halogen at the
  1. (A)β-carbon
  2. (B)α-carbon
  3. (C)Carbonyl carbon
  4. (D)Terminal carbon
Aldehydes, Ketones & Carboxylic Acids
Q088
Hinsberg's reagent is used to
  1. (A)Prepare amines from amides
  2. (B)Distinguish primary, secondary and tertiary amines
  3. (C)Reduce nitro compounds
  4. (D)Convert amines to alcohols
Amines
Q089
Aniline reacts with NaNO₂ and HCl at 273–278 K to give
  1. (A)Nitrobenzene
  2. (B)Benzenediazonium chloride
  3. (C)Phenol
  4. (D)Benzamide
Amines
Q090
The secondary structure of a protein is primarily stabilised by
  1. (A)Peptide bonds
  2. (B)Hydrogen bonds
  3. (C)Disulphide bridges
  4. (D)Ionic bonds
Biomolecules

Botany

Section C  ·  45 questions  ·  180 marks
Q091
A taxonomic key is based on
  1. (A)Similarities only
  2. (B)Contrasting characters arranged in couplets
  3. (C)Alphabetical order of names
  4. (D)Geographical distribution
The Living World
Q092
Whittaker's five kingdom classification was NOT based on
  1. (A)Cell structure
  2. (B)Mode of nutrition
  3. (C)Body organisation
  4. (D)Habitat and geographical range
Biological Classification
Q093
Methanogens found in the gut of ruminants belong to
  1. (A)Eubacteria
  2. (B)Archaebacteria
  3. (C)Cyanobacteria
  4. (D)Actinomycetes
Biological Classification
Q094
Viroids differ from viruses in that they
  1. (A)Have a protein coat but no nucleic acid
  2. (B)Consist of free RNA without a protein coat
  3. (C)Contain only DNA
  4. (D)Are non-infectious
Biological Classification
Q095
Bryophytes are called the amphibians of the plant kingdom because they
  1. (A)Grow only in water
  2. (B)Live on land but need water for sexual reproduction
  3. (C)Have true roots
  4. (D)Produce seeds
Plant Kingdom
Q096
Coralloid roots of Cycas are associated with
  1. (A)Mycorrhizal fungi
  2. (B)Nitrogen-fixing cyanobacteria
  3. (C)Rhizobium
  4. (D)Actinomycetes
Plant Kingdom
Q097
Pneumatophores are found in
  1. (A)Sweet potato
  2. (B)Rhizophora
  3. (C)Banyan
  4. (D)Sugarcane
Morphology of Flowering Plants
Q098
Racemose inflorescence is characterised by
  1. (A)The main axis terminating in a flower
  2. (B)The main axis continuing to grow with flowers borne laterally in acropetal order
  3. (C)Flowers arranged in basipetal order
  4. (D)A solitary terminal flower
Morphology of Flowering Plants
Q099
Mango and coconut are examples of
  1. (A)Berry
  2. (B)Pome
  3. (C)Drupe
  4. (D)Legume
Morphology of Flowering Plants
Q100
Annual rings in a tree trunk are produced because of
  1. (A)Activity of the cork cambium
  2. (B)Alternating formation of spring wood and autumn wood
  3. (C)Deposition of tannins
  4. (D)Formation of tyloses
Anatomy of Flowering Plants
Q101
Guard cells of grasses are
  1. (A)Bean-shaped
  2. (B)Dumb-bell shaped
  3. (C)Rectangular
  4. (D)Spherical
Anatomy of Flowering Plants
Q102
Which of the following xylem elements is living?
  1. (A)Tracheids
  2. (B)Vessels
  3. (C)Xylem fibres
  4. (D)Xylem parenchyma
Anatomy of Flowering Plants
Q103
The fluid mosaic model of the plasma membrane was proposed by
  1. (A)Robert Brown
  2. (B)Singer and Nicolson
  3. (C)Schleiden and Schwann
  4. (D)Robert Hooke
Cell: The Unit of Life
Q104
The nucleolus is the site of
  1. (A)DNA replication
  2. (B)Ribosomal RNA synthesis
  3. (C)Protein glycosylation
  4. (D)Lipid synthesis
Cell: The Unit of Life
Q105
Grana in a chloroplast are
  1. (A)Stacks of thylakoids
  2. (B)Fluid-filled stroma
  3. (C)Cristae of the inner membrane
  4. (D)Storage granules of starch
Cell: The Unit of Life
Q106
An amino acid in aqueous solution at its isoelectric point exists as
  1. (A)A neutral molecule
  2. (B)A zwitterion
  3. (C)An anion only
  4. (D)A cation only
Biomolecules
Q107
A nucleotide differs from a nucleoside in having an additional
  1. (A)Nitrogen base
  2. (B)Sugar
  3. (C)Phosphate group
  4. (D)Hydroxyl group
Biomolecules
Q108
Replication of DNA takes place during
  1. (A)G₁ phase
  2. (B)S phase
  3. (C)G₂ phase
  4. (D)M phase
Cell Cycle & Cell Division
Q109
Splitting of the centromere and movement of chromatids to opposite poles occurs during
  1. (A)Prophase
  2. (B)Metaphase
  3. (C)Anaphase
  4. (D)Telophase
Cell Cycle & Cell Division
Q110
The Hill reaction demonstrated that the oxygen released during photosynthesis comes from
  1. (A)Carbon dioxide
  2. (B)Water
  3. (C)Glucose
  4. (D)Atmospheric oxygen
Photosynthesis
Q111
According to the chemiosmotic hypothesis, ATP synthesis in chloroplasts is driven by
  1. (A)A proton gradient across the thylakoid membrane
  2. (B)Direct transfer of phosphate from NADPH
  3. (C)Substrate level phosphorylation
  4. (D)Breakdown of starch
Photosynthesis
Q112
Blackman's law of limiting factors states that
  1. (A)All factors act independently
  2. (B)The rate is determined by the factor present in the smallest amount
  3. (C)Light is always the limiting factor
  4. (D)Temperature never limits photosynthesis
Photosynthesis
Q113
Compared with C₃ plants, C₄ plants have
  1. (A)A higher CO₂ compensation point
  2. (B)A lower CO₂ compensation point and no photorespiration
  3. (C)No Calvin cycle
  4. (D)Only mesophyll chloroplasts
Photosynthesis
Q114
Glycolysis takes place in the
  1. (A)Mitochondrial matrix
  2. (B)Cytoplasm
  3. (C)Inner mitochondrial membrane
  4. (D)Chloroplast stroma
Respiration in Plants
Q115
The conversion of pyruvate to acetyl CoA occurs in the
  1. (A)Cytoplasm
  2. (B)Mitochondrial matrix
  3. (C)Outer mitochondrial membrane
  4. (D)Peroxisome
Respiration in Plants
Q116
Delay of leaf senescence, known as the Richmond–Lang effect, is caused by
  1. (A)Auxin
  2. (B)Gibberellin
  3. (C)Cytokinin
  4. (D)Ethylene
Plant Growth & Development
Q117
Ripening of fruits and abscission of leaves are promoted by
  1. (A)Ethylene
  2. (B)Cytokinin
  3. (C)Auxin
  4. (D)Gibberellin
Plant Growth & Development
Q118
The hard, resistant outer layer of a pollen grain is made of
  1. (A)Cellulose
  2. (B)Pectin
  3. (C)Sporopollenin
  4. (D)Cutin
Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants
Q119
Transfer of pollen from an anther to the stigma of another flower of the same plant is
  1. (A)Autogamy
  2. (B)Geitonogamy
  3. (C)Xenogamy
  4. (D)Cleistogamy
Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants
Q120
Which of the following is an outbreeding device?
  1. (A)Cleistogamy
  2. (B)Self-incompatibility
  3. (C)Bisexual flowers with synchronous maturity
  4. (D)Homogamy
Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants
Q121
Residual persistent nucellus in the seed is called
  1. (A)Perisperm
  2. (B)Pericarp
  3. (C)Aril
  4. (D)Caruncle
Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants
Q122
A cross between red and white flowered Antirrhinum gives pink F₁ plants. The F₂ phenotypic ratio is
  1. (A)3 : 1
  2. (B)1 : 2 : 1
  3. (C)9 : 3 : 3 : 1
  4. (D)2 : 1
Principles of Inheritance
Q123
Linkage was demonstrated experimentally by
  1. (A)Mendel in garden pea
  2. (B)Morgan in Drosophila
  3. (C)Sutton in grasshopper
  4. (D)Correns in maize
Principles of Inheritance
Q124
Haemophilia is
  1. (A)Autosomal dominant
  2. (B)Autosomal recessive
  3. (C)X-linked recessive
  4. (D)Y-linked
Principles of Inheritance
Q125
A person of blood group AB marries one of blood group O. The possible blood groups of their children are
  1. (A)A and B only
  2. (B)AB and O only
  3. (C)A, B, AB and O
  4. (D)Only O
Principles of Inheritance
Q126
In the B-DNA double helix, the number of base pairs per turn and the pitch are
  1. (A)10 bp and 3.4 nm
  2. (B)20 bp and 3.4 nm
  3. (C)10 bp and 0.34 nm
  4. (D)34 bp and 2 nm
Molecular Basis of Inheritance
Q127
A transcription unit in DNA consists of
  1. (A)Only the structural gene
  2. (B)A promoter, structural gene and terminator
  3. (C)Exons only
  4. (D)A promoter and operator only
Molecular Basis of Inheritance
Q128
Which statement about the genetic code is INCORRECT?
  1. (A)It is degenerate
  2. (B)It is nearly universal
  3. (C)It is overlapping
  4. (D)It is read in a contiguous manner without punctuation
Molecular Basis of Inheritance
Q129
DNA fingerprinting is based on the polymorphism in
  1. (A)Coding sequences of genes
  2. (B)Repetitive satellite DNA (VNTR)
  3. (C)Ribosomal RNA
  4. (D)Mitochondrial proteins
Molecular Basis of Inheritance
Q130
Which of the following is NOT a population attribute?
  1. (A)Birth rate
  2. (B)Death rate
  3. (C)Sex ratio
  4. (D)Body weight of an individual
Organisms & Populations
Q131
In the exponential growth equation dN/dt = rN, the term r represents
  1. (A)Carrying capacity
  2. (B)Intrinsic rate of natural increase
  3. (C)Population density
  4. (D)Environmental resistance
Organisms & Populations
Q132
The correct sequence of steps in decomposition is
  1. (A)Leaching, fragmentation, catabolism, humification, mineralisation
  2. (B)Fragmentation, leaching, catabolism, humification, mineralisation
  3. (C)Catabolism, fragmentation, leaching, mineralisation, humification
  4. (D)Humification, mineralisation, fragmentation, leaching, catabolism
Ecosystem
Q133
The pioneer species in a primary succession on bare rock are
  1. (A)Mosses
  2. (B)Lichens
  3. (C)Grasses
  4. (D)Shrubs
Ecosystem
Q134
The 'evil quartet' responsible for biodiversity loss includes all EXCEPT
  1. (A)Habitat loss and fragmentation
  2. (B)Over-exploitation
  3. (C)Alien species invasion
  4. (D)Ex situ conservation
Biodiversity & Conservation
Q135
India, with about 2.4% of the world's land area, holds roughly what share of global species diversity?
  1. (A)1.2%
  2. (B)4.5%
  3. (C)8.1%
  4. (D)15%
Biodiversity & Conservation

Zoology

Section D  ·  45 questions  ·  180 marks
Q136
Choanocytes or collar cells are characteristic of
  1. (A)Porifera
  2. (B)Cnidaria
  3. (C)Ctenophora
  4. (D)Platyhelminthes
Animal Kingdom
Q137
Nematocysts used for anchorage and defence occur in
  1. (A)Sponges
  2. (B)Cnidarians
  3. (C)Annelids
  4. (D)Molluscs
Animal Kingdom
Q138
True metameric segmentation is first seen in
  1. (A)Platyhelminthes
  2. (B)Aschelminthes
  3. (C)Annelida
  4. (D)Arthropoda
Animal Kingdom
Q139
Cartilaginous fishes must swim constantly because they lack
  1. (A)Gills
  2. (B)An air bladder
  3. (C)A notochord
  4. (D)Paired fins
Animal Kingdom
Q140
Intercalated discs are a distinguishing feature of
  1. (A)Skeletal muscle
  2. (B)Smooth muscle
  3. (C)Cardiac muscle
  4. (D)Areolar tissue
Structural Organisation in Animals
Q141
The mouth parts of a cockroach are of the
  1. (A)Piercing and sucking type
  2. (B)Biting and chewing type
  3. (C)Sponging type
  4. (D)Siphoning type
Structural Organisation in Animals
Q142
During inspiration in humans
  1. (A)The diaphragm relaxes and thoracic volume decreases
  2. (B)The diaphragm contracts and thoracic volume increases
  3. (C)Only the internal intercostals contract
  4. (D)Intrapulmonary pressure rises above atmospheric pressure
Breathing & Exchange of Gases
Q143
Emphysema is characterised by
  1. (A)Inflammation of the bronchi only
  2. (B)Damage to alveolar walls reducing the respiratory surface
  3. (C)Spasm of the bronchiolar smooth muscle
  4. (D)Fibrosis due to silica dust
Breathing & Exchange of Gases
Q144
The partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli is about
  1. (A)40 mm Hg
  2. (B)95 mm Hg
  3. (C)104 mm Hg
  4. (D)159 mm Hg
Breathing & Exchange of Gases
Q145
The QRS complex of an ECG represents
  1. (A)Atrial depolarisation
  2. (B)Ventricular depolarisation
  3. (C)Ventricular repolarisation
  4. (D)Atrial repolarisation
Body Fluids & Circulation
Q146
A person with blood group O can donate blood to
  1. (A)Group O only
  2. (B)Groups A and B only
  3. (C)All blood groups
  4. (D)Group AB only
Body Fluids & Circulation
Q147
Lymph differs from blood in
  1. (A)Containing more RBCs
  2. (B)Lacking RBCs and large plasma proteins
  3. (C)Lacking WBCs
  4. (D)Containing no plasma
Body Fluids & Circulation
Q148
The glomerular filtration rate in a healthy adult is about
  1. (A)25 mL per minute
  2. (B)125 mL per minute
  3. (C)180 mL per minute
  4. (D)1.5 L per minute
Excretory Products
Q149
Renin is secreted by the
  1. (A)Adrenal cortex
  2. (B)Juxtaglomerular apparatus
  3. (C)Posterior pituitary
  4. (D)Collecting duct
Excretory Products
Q150
The counter current mechanism of the kidney is maintained by
  1. (A)The Bowman's capsule and PCT
  2. (B)The loop of Henle and vasa recta
  3. (C)The glomerulus alone
  4. (D)The ureter
Excretory Products
Q151
During muscle contraction, which of the following does NOT change in length?
  1. (A)I band
  2. (B)H zone
  3. (C)A band
  4. (D)Sarcomere
Locomotion & Movement
Q152
Myasthenia gravis is
  1. (A)A degenerative joint disease
  2. (B)An autoimmune disorder affecting the neuromuscular junction
  3. (C)Caused by uric acid deposition
  4. (D)A deficiency of calcium
Locomotion & Movement
Q153
The joint between the humerus and the pectoral girdle is a
  1. (A)Hinge joint
  2. (B)Pivot joint
  3. (C)Ball and socket joint
  4. (D)Gliding joint
Locomotion & Movement
Q154
At a chemical synapse, the arrival of an impulse causes
  1. (A)Direct flow of ions through gap junctions
  2. (B)Release of neurotransmitter by fusion of synaptic vesicles with the presynaptic membrane
  3. (C)Reversal of the resting potential in the dendrite only
  4. (D)Hyperpolarisation of the axon terminal
Neural Control & Coordination
Q155
The correct order of the cranial meninges from outside inwards is
  1. (A)Pia mater, arachnoid, dura mater
  2. (B)Dura mater, arachnoid, pia mater
  3. (C)Arachnoid, dura mater, pia mater
  4. (D)Dura mater, pia mater, arachnoid
Neural Control & Coordination
Q156
Rhodopsin, the pigment of twilight vision, is present in
  1. (A)Cone cells
  2. (B)Rod cells
  3. (C)Ganglion cells
  4. (D)Bipolar cells
Neural Control & Coordination
Q157
Simple goitre is caused by the deficiency of
  1. (A)Iron
  2. (B)Iodine
  3. (C)Calcium
  4. (D)Vitamin D
Chemical Coordination
Q158
Protein and peptide hormones generally act by
  1. (A)Entering the nucleus directly
  2. (B)Binding to membrane receptors and generating second messengers such as cAMP
  3. (C)Binding to intracellular receptors
  4. (D)Altering membrane permeability to oxygen
Chemical Coordination
Q159
Thymosin is responsible for
  1. (A)Differentiation of T lymphocytes
  2. (B)Regulation of blood calcium
  3. (C)Secretion of gastric juice
  4. (D)Stimulating ovulation
Chemical Coordination
Q160
The transformation of spermatids into spermatozoa is called
  1. (A)Spermatogenesis
  2. (B)Spermiogenesis
  3. (C)Spermiation
  4. (D)Meiosis
Human Reproduction
Q161
Ovulation in the human menstrual cycle is triggered by
  1. (A)A surge of FSH
  2. (B)A surge of LH
  3. (C)A fall in progesterone
  4. (D)A rise in hCG
Human Reproduction
Q162
Which hormone is NOT secreted by the placenta?
  1. (A)hCG
  2. (B)Human placental lactogen
  3. (C)Progesterone
  4. (D)Follicle stimulating hormone
Human Reproduction
Q163
The part of the blastocyst that attaches to the uterine endometrium is the
  1. (A)Inner cell mass
  2. (B)Trophoblast
  3. (C)Blastocoel
  4. (D)Zona pellucida
Human Reproduction
Q164
Amniocentesis is legally banned for
  1. (A)Detecting chromosomal disorders
  2. (B)Detecting metabolic disorders
  3. (C)Determining the sex of the foetus
  4. (D)Detecting neural tube defects
Reproductive Health
Q165
Lactational amenorrhoea is effective as a contraceptive method for a maximum of about
  1. (A)Six months after parturition
  2. (B)One year after parturition
  3. (C)Two years after parturition
  4. (D)Three months after parturition
Reproductive Health
Q166
'Saheli' is
  1. (A)A copper releasing IUD
  2. (B)A non-steroidal oral pill taken once a week
  3. (C)An injectable contraceptive
  4. (D)A barrier method
Reproductive Health
Q167
The experiment of Miller and Urey supported the theory of
  1. (A)Spontaneous generation
  2. (B)Chemical evolution of life
  3. (C)Special creation
  4. (D)Panspermia
Evolution
Q168
Darwin's finches on the Galapagos Islands are a classic example of
  1. (A)Convergent evolution
  2. (B)Adaptive radiation
  3. (C)Genetic drift
  4. (D)Artificial selection
Evolution
Q169
Archaeopteryx is regarded as a connecting link between
  1. (A)Fishes and amphibians
  2. (B)Amphibians and reptiles
  3. (C)Reptiles and birds
  4. (D)Reptiles and mammals
Evolution
Q170
The forelimbs of a whale, a bat and a cheetah illustrate
  1. (A)Analogy and convergent evolution
  2. (B)Homology and divergent evolution
  3. (C)Vestigial organs
  4. (D)Atavism
Evolution
Q171
Ascariasis is transmitted mainly through
  1. (A)The bite of a female Anopheles mosquito
  2. (B)Contaminated water, vegetables and soil carrying eggs
  3. (C)Direct contact with an infected person's skin
  4. (D)Blood transfusion
Human Health & Disease
Q172
Which of the following is NOT a component of innate immunity?
  1. (A)Physical barriers such as skin
  2. (B)Phagocytic leucocytes
  3. (C)Interferons
  4. (D)Antibody production against a specific antigen
Human Health & Disease
Q173
The antibody present in colostrum that gives a newborn passive immunity is
  1. (A)IgG
  2. (B)IgA
  3. (C)IgM
  4. (D)IgE
Human Health & Disease
Q174
The property by which cancer cells spread to distant sites through the blood is called
  1. (A)Metastasis
  2. (B)Contact inhibition
  3. (C)Apoptosis
  4. (D)Differentiation
Human Health & Disease
Q175
Cannabinoids are obtained from
  1. (A)Papaver somniferum
  2. (B)Cannabis sativa
  3. (C)Erythroxylum coca
  4. (D)Atropa belladonna
Human Health & Disease
Q176
During agarose gel electrophoresis, DNA fragments move towards the
  1. (A)Cathode, because DNA is positively charged
  2. (B)Anode, because DNA is negatively charged
  3. (C)Either electrode depending on size
  4. (D)Centre of the gel
Biotechnology – Principles
Q177
Separated DNA fragments in a gel are visualised by staining with
  1. (A)Methylene blue and visible light
  2. (B)Ethidium bromide and exposure to UV radiation
  3. (C)Safranin and X-rays
  4. (D)Iodine solution
Biotechnology – Principles
Q178
The most commonly used bioreactor for large scale production is the
  1. (A)Simple stirred tank bioreactor
  2. (B)Sparged stirred tank bioreactor
  3. (C)Continuous flow tubular reactor
  4. (D)Packed bed reactor
Biotechnology – Principles
Q179
Golden rice is a transgenic variety enriched in
  1. (A)Iron
  2. (B)Vitamin C
  3. (C)Provitamin A (β-carotene)
  4. (D)Lysine
Biotechnology – Applications
Q180
Human insulin produced by Eli Lilly using recombinant DNA technology involved
  1. (A)Extracting insulin from pig pancreas
  2. (B)Producing A and B chains separately in E. coli and joining them by disulphide bonds
  3. (C)Synthesising proinsulin in yeast only
  4. (D)Chemical synthesis of the whole hormone
Biotechnology – Applications