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Most-Expected Paper — Set 1

Full-syllabus NEET pattern paper built on recurring question types from past NEET papers and the rationalised NCERT syllabus. All 180 questions are compulsory.

Questions
180
Marks
720
Duration
200 min
Marking
+4 / −1
Set
1
Instructions. Attempt all 180 questions. Each correct answer earns +4; each incorrect answer costs −1; unattempted questions score 0. Only one option is correct. Use of calculators is not permitted. Mark the answer sheet before checking the key — leave a question blank only when you truly cannot narrow it to two options.

Physics

Section A  ·  45 questions  ·  180 marks
Q001
The dimensional formula of Planck's constant is the same as that of
  1. (A)Linear momentum
  2. (B)Angular momentum
  3. (C)Energy
  4. (D)Power
Units & Dimensions
Q002
The percentage errors in the measurement of mass and speed of a body are 2% and 3% respectively. The maximum error in the calculated kinetic energy is
  1. (A)5%
  2. (B)8%
  3. (C)11%
  4. (D)2%
Errors
Q003
A ball thrown vertically upward returns to the thrower after 6 s. The maximum height reached is (g = 10 m s⁻²)
  1. (A)30 m
  2. (B)45 m
  3. (C)60 m
  4. (D)90 m
Kinematics
Q004
For a projectile, the ratio of maximum height to horizontal range is 1 : 4. The angle of projection is
  1. (A)30°
  2. (B)37°
  3. (C)45°
  4. (D)60°
Kinematics
Q005
A body of mass 2 kg moving with 5 m s⁻¹ is brought to rest in 0.1 s. The average retarding force is
  1. (A)10 N
  2. (B)50 N
  3. (C)100 N
  4. (D)200 N
Laws of Motion
Q006
The minimum coefficient of friction required to prevent a block from sliding down a 30° incline is
  1. (A)0.25
  2. (B)0.50
  3. (C)0.58
  4. (D)0.87
Laws of Motion
Q007
A body moving with velocity v makes a head-on elastic collision with an identical body at rest. After collision the first body
  1. (A)Moves with v/2
  2. (B)Comes to rest
  3. (C)Rebounds with v
  4. (D)Moves with 2v
Work, Energy & Power
Q008
A pump lifts 100 kg of water per second through a height of 10 m. Its power output is (g = 10 m s⁻²)
  1. (A)1 kW
  2. (B)10 kW
  3. (C)100 kW
  4. (D)1000 W
Work, Energy & Power
Q009
The ratio of the moment of inertia of a uniform rod about an axis through one end to that about an axis through its centre (both ⊥ to rod) is
  1. (A)1 : 4
  2. (B)2 : 1
  3. (C)4 : 1
  4. (D)3 : 1
Rotational Motion
Q010
A solid cylinder and a hollow cylinder of same mass and radius are released together from the top of an incline. Which reaches the bottom first?
  1. (A)Hollow cylinder
  2. (B)Solid cylinder
  3. (C)Both together
  4. (D)Depends on incline angle
Rotational Motion
Q011
Two particles of masses 2 kg and 3 kg are placed at x = 0 and x = 5 m. The centre of mass lies at
  1. (A)2.0 m
  2. (B)2.5 m
  3. (C)3.0 m
  4. (D)3.5 m
Rotational Motion
Q012
The weight of a body at a depth R/2 below the earth's surface (R = radius of earth) is
  1. (A)W/4
  2. (B)W/2
  3. (C)2W
  4. (D)W
Gravitation
Q013
If the radius of a satellite's circular orbit is increased four times, its period of revolution becomes
  1. (A)2T
  2. (B)4T
  3. (C)8T
  4. (D)16T
Gravitation
Q014
A wire of length L and area A elongates by x under a force F. Another wire of the same material with length 2L and area 2A under the same force elongates by
  1. (A)x/2
  2. (B)x
  3. (C)2x
  4. (D)4x
Elasticity
Q015
The excess pressure inside a soap bubble of radius r and surface tension T is
  1. (A)T/r
  2. (B)2T/r
  3. (C)4T/r
  4. (D)T/2r
Fluids
Q016
Two rods of equal length and cross-section but of conductivities K₁ and K₂ are joined in series. The equivalent conductivity is
  1. (A)(K₁ + K₂)/2
  2. (B)K₁K₂/(K₁ + K₂)
  3. (C)2K₁K₂/(K₁ + K₂)
  4. (D)√(K₁K₂)
Thermal Properties
Q017
During an adiabatic expansion of an ideal gas
  1. (A)Q = 0 and internal energy decreases
  2. (B)Q = 0 and temperature rises
  3. (C)W = 0 and Q is positive
  4. (D)ΔU = 0 and Q = W
Thermodynamics
Q018
A Carnot engine working between a source and a sink at 300 K has an efficiency of 50%. The source temperature is
  1. (A)450 K
  2. (B)500 K
  3. (C)600 K
  4. (D)900 K
Thermodynamics
Q019
The ratio of rms speeds of hydrogen and oxygen molecules at the same temperature is
  1. (A)1 : 4
  2. (B)4 : 1
  3. (C)1 : 16
  4. (D)16 : 1
Kinetic Theory
Q020
In SHM of amplitude A, the kinetic energy equals the potential energy at displacement
  1. (A)A/4
  2. (B)A/2
  3. (C)A/√2
  4. (D)A
Oscillations
Q021
A spring of force constant k is cut into two equal halves and both are used in parallel to oscillate the same mass. The new time period is
  1. (A)2T
  2. (B)T
  3. (C)T/2
  4. (D)T/4
Oscillations
Q022
The ratio of the fundamental frequency of a closed organ pipe to that of an open organ pipe of the same length is
  1. (A)1 : 2
  2. (B)2 : 1
  3. (C)1 : 4
  4. (D)4 : 1
Waves
Q023
A source of sound of frequency f approaches a stationary observer with speed v/5 (v = speed of sound). The apparent frequency is
  1. (A)0.8 f
  2. (B)1.20 f
  3. (C)1.25 f
  4. (D)1.5 f
Waves
Q024
The electric field at a point inside a charged conducting sphere in electrostatic equilibrium is
  1. (A)Zero
  2. (B)kq/r²
  3. (C)kq/R²
  4. (D)Infinite
Electrostatics
Q025
The work done in rotating an electric dipole of moment p from a position parallel to a uniform field E to a position antiparallel to it is
  1. (A)Zero
  2. (B)pE
  3. (C)2pE
  4. (D)pE/2
Electrostatics
Q026
A charge q is placed at the centre of a cube. The electric flux through one face of the cube is
  1. (A)q/ε₀
  2. (B)q/2ε₀
  3. (C)q/6ε₀
  4. (D)q/8ε₀
Electrostatics
Q027
A parallel plate capacitor is charged and then disconnected from the battery. A dielectric of constant K is now inserted. The potential difference becomes
  1. (A)KV
  2. (B)V/K
  3. (C)V
  4. (D)K²V
Capacitors
Q028
The radius of a current-carrying wire is doubled while the current is kept the same. The drift velocity of electrons becomes
  1. (A)Twice
  2. (B)Half
  3. (C)One-fourth
  4. (D)Unchanged
Current Electricity
Q029
A cell of emf 12 V delivers a current of 2 A to an external circuit; the terminal voltage is 10 V. The internal resistance is
  1. (A)0.5 Ω
  2. (B)1 Ω
  3. (C)2 Ω
  4. (D)5 Ω
Current Electricity
Q030
A wire of fixed length is bent into a circular coil of n turns and carries a current I. The magnetic field at the centre is proportional to
  1. (A)n
  2. (B)n²
  3. (C)1/n
  4. (D)n³
Moving Charges & Magnetism
Q031
Two long parallel wires 1 m apart each carry 1 A in the same direction. The force per unit length between them is
  1. (A)2 × 10⁻⁷ N m⁻¹, attractive
  2. (B)2 × 10⁻⁷ N m⁻¹, repulsive
  3. (C)4π × 10⁻⁷ N m⁻¹, attractive
  4. (D)10⁻⁷ N m⁻¹, repulsive
Moving Charges & Magnetism
Q032
For a diamagnetic material, the magnetic susceptibility is
  1. (A)Small and positive
  2. (B)Large and positive
  3. (C)Small and negative
  4. (D)Zero
Magnetism & Matter
Q033
A conducting rod of length 0.2 m moves with 10 m s⁻¹ perpendicular to a uniform field of 0.5 T. The emf induced is
  1. (A)0.1 V
  2. (B)0.5 V
  3. (C)1 V
  4. (D)2 V
Electromagnetic Induction
Q034
If the number of turns per unit length of a solenoid is doubled keeping length and area the same, its self-inductance becomes
  1. (A)Half
  2. (B)Twice
  3. (C)Four times
  4. (D)Unchanged
Electromagnetic Induction
Q035
At resonance in a series LCR circuit
  1. (A)Impedance is maximum
  2. (B)Current is minimum
  3. (C)Power factor is unity
  4. (D)Voltage across R is zero
Alternating Current
Q036
A transformer converts 220 V to 22 V. If the primary has 100 turns, the secondary has
  1. (A)5 turns
  2. (B)10 turns
  3. (C)100 turns
  4. (D)1000 turns
Alternating Current
Q037
For an electromagnetic wave travelling in free space, the ratio E₀/B₀ equals
  1. (A)c
  2. (B)1/c
  3. (C)c²
  4. (D)μ₀ε₀
Electromagnetic Waves
Q038
A convex lens of focal length 10 cm is placed in contact with a concave lens of focal length 20 cm. The focal length of the combination is
  1. (A)10 cm
  2. (B)20 cm
  3. (C)−20 cm
  4. (D)6.7 cm
Ray Optics
Q039
The critical angle for a medium of refractive index 1.5 with respect to air is nearly
  1. (A)30°
  2. (B)42°
  3. (C)48°
  4. (D)60°
Ray Optics
Q040
A Young's double slit apparatus giving fringe width β in air is completely immersed in water (μ = 4/3). The new fringe width is
  1. (A)4β/3
  2. (B)3β/4
  3. (C)β
  4. (D)β/2
Wave Optics
Q041
The energy of the electron in the second orbit of the hydrogen atom is
  1. (A)−13.6 eV
  2. (B)−6.8 eV
  3. (C)−3.4 eV
  4. (D)−1.51 eV
Atoms
Q042
In a photoelectric experiment, the graph of stopping potential against frequency of incident light is a straight line whose slope equals
  1. (A)h
  2. (B)h/e
  3. (C)e/h
  4. (D)hν₀
Dual Nature of Matter
Q043
Among the following, the nucleus with the highest binding energy per nucleon is
  1. (A)²H
  2. (B)⁵⁶Fe
  3. (C)²³⁸U
  4. (D)⁴He
Nuclei
Q044
When a p-n junction diode is forward biased, the width of the depletion region
  1. (A)Increases
  2. (B)Decreases
  3. (C)Remains the same
  4. (D)Becomes infinite
Semiconductors
Q045
A two-input NAND gate with both inputs shorted together behaves as
  1. (A)An OR gate
  2. (B)An AND gate
  3. (C)A NOT gate
  4. (D)An XOR gate
Semiconductors

Chemistry

Section B  ·  45 questions  ·  180 marks
Q046
The number of molecules present in 4.4 g of CO₂ is
  1. (A)6.022 × 10²³
  2. (B)6.022 × 10²²
  3. (C)3.011 × 10²³
  4. (D)1.204 × 10²³
Some Basic Concepts
Q047
A compound contains 40% C, 6.7% H and 53.3% O by mass. Its empirical formula is
  1. (A)CHO
  2. (B)CH₂O
  3. (C)C₂H₄O
  4. (D)CH₄O
Some Basic Concepts
Q048
The number of unpaired electrons in a chromium atom (Z = 24) in its ground state is
  1. (A)1
  2. (B)4
  3. (C)5
  4. (D)6
Structure of Atom
Q049
The maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in the sub-shell with n = 3, l = 2 is
  1. (A)2
  2. (B)6
  3. (C)10
  4. (D)14
Structure of Atom
Q050
The correct order of increasing ionic radii is
  1. (A)Al³⁺ < Mg²⁺ < Na⁺ < F⁻ < O²⁻
  2. (B)O²⁻ < F⁻ < Na⁺ < Mg²⁺ < Al³⁺
  3. (C)Na⁺ < Mg²⁺ < Al³⁺ < F⁻ < O²⁻
  4. (D)F⁻ < O²⁻ < Na⁺ < Al³⁺ < Mg²⁺
Classification & Periodicity
Q051
Which of the following has the highest first ionisation enthalpy?
  1. (A)N
  2. (B)O
  3. (C)F
  4. (D)Ne
Classification & Periodicity
Q052
Which of the following molecules has zero dipole moment?
  1. (A)NH₃
  2. (B)H₂O
  3. (C)BF₃
  4. (D)NF₃
Chemical Bonding
Q053
The bond order of the superoxide ion O₂⁻ is
  1. (A)1
  2. (B)1.5
  3. (C)2
  4. (D)2.5
Chemical Bonding
Q054
Which of the following species is paramagnetic?
  1. (A)N₂
  2. (B)O₂
  3. (C)F₂
  4. (D)CO
Chemical Bonding
Q055
The number of sigma and pi bonds in vinyl acetylene, CH≡C–CH=CH₂, is
  1. (A)7 σ and 3 π
  2. (B)9 σ and 3 π
  3. (C)7 σ and 2 π
  4. (D)6 σ and 4 π
Chemical Bonding
Q056
For the reaction N₂(g) + 3H₂(g) → 2NH₃(g), the relation between ΔH and ΔU is
  1. (A)ΔH = ΔU
  2. (B)ΔH = ΔU + 2RT
  3. (C)ΔH = ΔU − 2RT
  4. (D)ΔH = ΔU − RT
Thermodynamics
Q057
A reaction is spontaneous at all temperatures when
  1. (A)ΔH > 0, ΔS > 0
  2. (B)ΔH < 0, ΔS > 0
  3. (C)ΔH < 0, ΔS < 0
  4. (D)ΔH > 0, ΔS < 0
Thermodynamics
Q058
For N₂(g) + 3H₂(g) ⇌ 2NH₃(g), the relation between Kp and Kc is
  1. (A)Kp = Kc
  2. (B)Kp = Kc(RT)²
  3. (C)Kp = Kc(RT)⁻²
  4. (D)Kp = Kc(RT)⁻¹
Equilibrium
Q059
The pH of a 10⁻³ M NaOH solution at 298 K is
  1. (A)3
  2. (B)7
  3. (C)11
  4. (D)14
Equilibrium
Q060
In a buffer solution containing equal concentrations of a weak acid and its conjugate base, the pH equals
  1. (A)pKa
  2. (B)pKb
  3. (C)7
  4. (D)pKa + 1
Equilibrium
Q061
The oxidation number of chromium in K₂Cr₂O₇ is
  1. (A)+3
  2. (B)+4
  3. (C)+6
  4. (D)+7
Redox Reactions
Q062
The most stable carbocation among the following is
  1. (A)CH₃CH₂⁺
  2. (B)(CH₃)₂CH⁺
  3. (C)(CH₃)₃C⁺
  4. (D)C₆H₅CH₂⁺
Organic Chemistry – Basic Principles
Q063
The number of hyperconjugative structures possible for propene is
  1. (A)1
  2. (B)2
  3. (C)3
  4. (D)6
Organic Chemistry – Basic Principles
Q064
The IUPAC name of (CH₃)₂CH–CH₂–CH(CH₃)–CH₃ is
  1. (A)2,4-Dimethylpentane
  2. (B)2,3-Dimethylpentane
  3. (C)2-Methylhexane
  4. (D)3,4-Dimethylpentane
Organic Chemistry – Basic Principles
Q065
Addition of HBr to propene in the absence of peroxide gives mainly
  1. (A)1-Bromopropane
  2. (B)2-Bromopropane
  3. (C)1,2-Dibromopropane
  4. (D)Propane
Hydrocarbons
Q066
Reductive ozonolysis of but-2-ene yields
  1. (A)Ethanal only
  2. (B)Methanal only
  3. (C)Ethanal and methanal
  4. (D)Propanone
Hydrocarbons
Q067
The electrophile involved in the nitration of benzene is
  1. (A)NO₂⁻
  2. (B)NO₂⁺
  3. (C)NO⁺
  4. (D)HNO₃
Hydrocarbons
Q068
The van't Hoff factor for K₄[Fe(CN)₆], assuming complete dissociation, is
  1. (A)2
  2. (B)3
  3. (C)4
  4. (D)5
Solutions
Q069
Which of the following aqueous solutions has the highest boiling point (assume complete dissociation)?
  1. (A)0.1 m glucose
  2. (B)0.1 m NaCl
  3. (C)0.1 m BaCl₂
  4. (D)0.1 m urea
Solutions
Q070
Given E°(Zn²⁺/Zn) = −0.76 V and E°(Cu²⁺/Cu) = +0.34 V, the standard emf of the Daniell cell is
  1. (A)0.42 V
  2. (B)1.10 V
  3. (C)−1.10 V
  4. (D)0.76 V
Electrochemistry
Q071
The mass of copper deposited when 2 faradays of charge are passed through CuSO₄ solution is (At. mass Cu = 63.5)
  1. (A)31.75 g
  2. (B)63.5 g
  3. (C)127 g
  4. (D)15.9 g
Electrochemistry
Q072
On dilution of a weak electrolyte solution
  1. (A)Molar conductivity decreases and conductivity increases
  2. (B)Both molar conductivity and conductivity increase
  3. (C)Molar conductivity increases and conductivity decreases
  4. (D)Both decrease
Electrochemistry
Q073
For a first-order reaction with k = 6.93 × 10⁻³ s⁻¹, the half-life is
  1. (A)10 s
  2. (B)100 s
  3. (C)693 s
  4. (D)1000 s
Chemical Kinetics
Q074
For a first-order reaction, the time required for 99% completion is
  1. (A)Equal to the time for 90% completion
  2. (B)Twice the time for 90% completion
  3. (C)Half the time for 90% completion
  4. (D)Ten times the time for 90% completion
Chemical Kinetics
Q075
Which of the following ions is colourless in aqueous solution?
  1. (A)Ti³⁺
  2. (B)Cu²⁺
  3. (C)Sc³⁺
  4. (D)Ni²⁺
d- and f-Block Elements
Q076
Lanthanoid contraction is primarily due to
  1. (A)Perfect shielding by 4f electrons
  2. (B)Poor shielding by 4f electrons
  3. (C)Increasing atomic size across the series
  4. (D)Presence of unpaired 5d electrons
d- and f-Block Elements
Q077
The spin-only magnetic moment of Fe³⁺ is
  1. (A)1.73 BM
  2. (B)3.87 BM
  3. (C)4.90 BM
  4. (D)5.92 BM
d- and f-Block Elements
Q078
The IUPAC name of [Co(NH₃)₅Cl]Cl₂ is
  1. (A)Pentaamminechloridocobalt(III) chloride
  2. (B)Pentaamminechlorocobalt(II) chloride
  3. (C)Chloridopentaamminecobalt(II) chloride
  4. (D)Pentaamminechloridocobalt(II) dichloride
Coordination Compounds
Q079
The hybridisation and number of unpaired electrons in [Fe(CN)₆]³⁻ are
  1. (A)sp³d², 5
  2. (B)d²sp³, 1
  3. (C)sp³d², 1
  4. (D)d²sp³, 5
Coordination Compounds
Q080
The number of geometrical isomers of [Co(NH₃)₄Cl₂]⁺ is
  1. (A)1
  2. (B)2
  3. (C)3
  4. (D)4
Coordination Compounds
Q081
The correct order of reactivity towards SN1 reaction is
  1. (A)1° > 2° > 3°
  2. (B)3° > 2° > 1°
  3. (C)2° > 3° > 1°
  4. (D)1° > 3° > 2°
Haloalkanes & Haloarenes
Q082
Which halide undergoes SN2 substitution most rapidly?
  1. (A)CH₃Br
  2. (B)CH₃CH₂Br
  3. (C)(CH₃)₂CHBr
  4. (D)(CH₃)₃CBr
Haloalkanes & Haloarenes
Q083
The correct order of acidic strength is
  1. (A)Ethanol > water > phenol
  2. (B)Phenol > water > ethanol
  3. (C)Water > phenol > ethanol
  4. (D)Phenol > ethanol > water
Alcohols, Phenols & Ethers
Q084
In the Lucas test, the alcohol that gives immediate turbidity at room temperature is
  1. (A)Ethanol
  2. (B)Propan-1-ol
  3. (C)Propan-2-ol
  4. (D)2-Methylpropan-2-ol
Alcohols, Phenols & Ethers
Q085
Which of the following does NOT undergo the aldol condensation?
  1. (A)Ethanal
  2. (B)Propanone
  3. (C)Benzaldehyde
  4. (D)Butanal
Aldehydes, Ketones & Carboxylic Acids
Q086
Which compound does NOT give a positive iodoform test?
  1. (A)Ethanol
  2. (B)Propanone
  3. (C)Ethanal
  4. (D)Pentan-3-one
Aldehydes, Ketones & Carboxylic Acids
Q087
The correct order of acid strength is
  1. (A)CH₃COOH > ClCH₂COOH > FCH₂COOH
  2. (B)FCH₂COOH > ClCH₂COOH > CH₃COOH
  3. (C)ClCH₂COOH > FCH₂COOH > CH₃COOH
  4. (D)CH₃COOH > FCH₂COOH > ClCH₂COOH
Aldehydes, Ketones & Carboxylic Acids
Q088
The correct order of basic strength in aqueous solution is
  1. (A)NH₃ > C₂H₅NH₂ > (C₂H₅)₂NH
  2. (B)(C₂H₅)₂NH > C₂H₅NH₂ > NH₃ > C₆H₅NH₂
  3. (C)C₆H₅NH₂ > NH₃ > C₂H₅NH₂
  4. (D)(C₂H₅)₃N > (C₂H₅)₂NH > C₂H₅NH₂ > NH₃
Amines
Q089
The carbylamine reaction is a test for
  1. (A)Primary amines
  2. (B)Secondary amines
  3. (C)Tertiary amines
  4. (D)Quaternary salts
Amines
Q090
Which of the following is a non-reducing sugar?
  1. (A)Glucose
  2. (B)Maltose
  3. (C)Lactose
  4. (D)Sucrose
Biomolecules

Botany

Section C  ·  45 questions  ·  180 marks
Q091
In the name Mangifera indica, the word 'indica' represents the
  1. (A)Genus
  2. (B)Specific epithet
  3. (C)Family
  4. (D)Order
The Living World
Q092
The organism that completely lacks a cell wall and is the smallest living cell is
  1. (A)Cyanobacteria
  2. (B)Mycoplasma
  3. (C)Nostoc
  4. (D)Chlamydomonas
Biological Classification
Q093
Red tides in the sea are caused by
  1. (A)Diatoms
  2. (B)Dinoflagellates
  3. (C)Euglenoids
  4. (D)Slime moulds
Biological Classification
Q094
The dikaryotic condition (n + n) is a characteristic feature of
  1. (A)Phycomycetes
  2. (B)Ascomycetes and Basidiomycetes
  3. (C)Deuteromycetes only
  4. (D)Basidiomycetes only
Biological Classification
Q095
The prothallus of a fern is
  1. (A)A diploid sporophyte
  2. (B)A haploid gametophyte
  3. (C)A resting spore
  4. (D)A protonema
Plant Kingdom
Q096
Double fertilisation is a characteristic feature of
  1. (A)Bryophytes
  2. (B)Pteridophytes
  3. (C)Gymnosperms
  4. (D)Angiosperms
Plant Kingdom
Q097
The type of aestivation seen in china rose (Hibiscus) is
  1. (A)Valvate
  2. (B)Twisted
  3. (C)Imbricate
  4. (D)Vexillary
Morphology of Flowering Plants
Q098
Free central placentation is found in
  1. (A)Pea
  2. (B)Dianthus
  3. (C)China rose
  4. (D)Mustard
Morphology of Flowering Plants
Q099
Vexillary aestivation together with diadelphous stamens is characteristic of the family
  1. (A)Solanaceae
  2. (B)Liliaceae
  3. (C)Fabaceae
  4. (D)Brassicaceae
Morphology of Flowering Plants
Q100
Casparian strips are a characteristic feature of
  1. (A)Epidermis
  2. (B)Cortex
  3. (C)Endodermis
  4. (D)Pericycle
Anatomy of Flowering Plants
Q101
Vascular bundles in a monocot stem are
  1. (A)Conjoint, open and arranged in a ring
  2. (B)Conjoint, closed and scattered
  3. (C)Radial and closed
  4. (D)Bicollateral and open
Anatomy of Flowering Plants
Q102
Bulliform cells occur in the
  1. (A)Root epidermis of dicots
  2. (B)Adaxial epidermis of grass leaves
  3. (C)Pericycle of monocot roots
  4. (D)Phloem of dicot stems
Anatomy of Flowering Plants
Q103
The prokaryotic ribosome is
  1. (A)80S with 60S and 40S subunits
  2. (B)70S with 50S and 30S subunits
  3. (C)70S with 60S and 30S subunits
  4. (D)80S with 50S and 40S subunits
Cell: The Unit of Life
Q104
The middle lamella between adjacent plant cells is mainly composed of
  1. (A)Cellulose
  2. (B)Lignin
  3. (C)Calcium pectate
  4. (D)Suberin
Cell: The Unit of Life
Q105
Which of the following cell organelles is non-membranous?
  1. (A)Lysosome
  2. (B)Ribosome
  3. (C)Golgi apparatus
  4. (D)Peroxisome
Cell: The Unit of Life
Q106
Malonate inhibits succinic dehydrogenase because it is a
  1. (A)Non-competitive inhibitor
  2. (B)Competitive inhibitor
  3. (C)Allosteric activator
  4. (D)Coenzyme
Biomolecules
Q107
Which of the following is a secondary metabolite?
  1. (A)Glycine
  2. (B)Rubber
  3. (C)Glucose
  4. (D)Cholesterol
Biomolecules
Q108
Crossing over between homologous chromosomes takes place during
  1. (A)Leptotene
  2. (B)Zygotene
  3. (C)Pachytene
  4. (D)Diplotene
Cell Cycle & Cell Division
Q109
The synaptonemal complex is formed during
  1. (A)Leptotene
  2. (B)Zygotene
  3. (C)Diakinesis
  4. (D)Metaphase I
Cell Cycle & Cell Division
Q110
In C₄ plants the first stable product of CO₂ fixation is
  1. (A)3-Phosphoglyceric acid
  2. (B)Oxaloacetic acid
  3. (C)Malic acid
  4. (D)Pyruvic acid
Photosynthesis
Q111
The number of ATP and NADPH molecules required to fix six molecules of CO₂ in the Calvin cycle is
  1. (A)12 ATP and 12 NADPH
  2. (B)18 ATP and 12 NADPH
  3. (C)12 ATP and 18 NADPH
  4. (D)18 ATP and 18 NADPH
Photosynthesis
Q112
During photorespiration
  1. (A)ATP and NADPH are produced
  2. (B)Sugar is synthesised
  3. (C)There is no synthesis of sugar or ATP
  4. (D)Only NADPH is produced
Photosynthesis
Q113
The reaction centre pigment of photosystem I is
  1. (A)P680
  2. (B)P700
  3. (C)P870
  4. (D)Chlorophyll b
Photosynthesis
Q114
The net gain of ATP molecules from the complete aerobic oxidation of one molecule of glucose, as given in NCERT, is
  1. (A)30
  2. (B)32
  3. (C)36
  4. (D)38
Respiration in Plants
Q115
The respiratory quotient of fats is
  1. (A)Greater than 1
  2. (B)Equal to 1
  3. (C)Less than 1
  4. (D)Zero
Respiration in Plants
Q116
Parthenocarpy in tomato can be induced by treatment with
  1. (A)Auxin
  2. (B)Abscisic acid
  3. (C)Ethylene
  4. (D)Cytokinin
Plant Growth & Development
Q117
The promotion of flowering by a period of low temperature is called
  1. (A)Photoperiodism
  2. (B)Vernalisation
  3. (C)Phototropism
  4. (D)Senescence
Plant Growth & Development
Q118
The innermost wall layer of the anther that nourishes developing pollen grains is the
  1. (A)Epidermis
  2. (B)Endothecium
  3. (C)Middle layer
  4. (D)Tapetum
Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants
Q119
A typical Polygonum type embryo sac at maturity is
  1. (A)8-nucleate and 8-celled
  2. (B)8-nucleate and 7-celled
  3. (C)7-nucleate and 8-celled
  4. (D)4-nucleate and 4-celled
Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants
Q120
The primary endosperm nucleus in angiosperms is
  1. (A)Haploid
  2. (B)Diploid
  3. (C)Triploid
  4. (D)Tetraploid
Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants
Q121
Polyembryony in citrus commonly results from
  1. (A)Cleavage of the zygote
  2. (B)Nucellar cells developing into embryos
  3. (C)Fusion of two egg cells
  4. (D)Division of the synergid only
Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants
Q122
The phenotypic ratio obtained in a dihybrid test cross is
  1. (A)9 : 3 : 3 : 1
  2. (B)1 : 2 : 1
  3. (C)1 : 1 : 1 : 1
  4. (D)3 : 1
Principles of Inheritance
Q123
The ABO blood group system in humans illustrates
  1. (A)Only codominance
  2. (B)Only multiple allelism
  3. (C)Multiple allelism and codominance
  4. (D)Incomplete dominance
Principles of Inheritance
Q124
A carrier woman for colour blindness marries a normal man. The probability that their sons are colour blind is
  1. (A)0%
  2. (B)25%
  3. (C)50%
  4. (D)100%
Principles of Inheritance
Q125
Down's syndrome is caused by
  1. (A)Monosomy of chromosome 21
  2. (B)Trisomy of chromosome 21
  3. (C)Trisomy of chromosome 18
  4. (D)An extra X chromosome
Principles of Inheritance
Q126
The transforming principle of Griffith's experiment was identified as DNA by
  1. (A)Hershey and Chase
  2. (B)Avery, MacLeod and McCarty
  3. (C)Meselson and Stahl
  4. (D)Watson and Crick
Molecular Basis of Inheritance
Q127
Okazaki fragments are formed on the lagging strand and are joined together by
  1. (A)DNA helicase
  2. (B)DNA ligase
  3. (C)DNA polymerase III
  4. (D)Primase
Molecular Basis of Inheritance
Q128
The inducer of the lac operon in E. coli is
  1. (A)Lactose itself
  2. (B)Allolactose
  3. (C)Galactose
  4. (D)cAMP
Molecular Basis of Inheritance
Q129
The approximate number of base pairs in the human genome is
  1. (A)3.3 × 10⁶
  2. (B)3.3 × 10⁹
  3. (C)6.6 × 10⁹
  4. (D)3.3 × 10¹²
Molecular Basis of Inheritance
Q130
The logistic growth curve is
  1. (A)J-shaped
  2. (B)Sigmoid
  3. (C)Linear
  4. (D)Exponential throughout
Organisms & Populations
Q131
Lichens represent an example of
  1. (A)Parasitism
  2. (B)Commensalism
  3. (C)Mutualism
  4. (D)Amensalism
Organisms & Populations
Q132
The pyramid of energy in an ecosystem is
  1. (A)Always inverted
  2. (B)Always upright
  3. (C)Sometimes inverted
  4. (D)Always spindle shaped
Ecosystem
Q133
Net primary productivity is equal to
  1. (A)GPP + respiration losses
  2. (B)GPP − respiration losses
  3. (C)Secondary productivity + GPP
  4. (D)Standing crop
Ecosystem
Q134
In the species–area relationship S = CA^Z, the value of Z for small regions usually lies between
  1. (A)0.1 and 0.2
  2. (B)0.6 and 1.2
  3. (C)1.0 and 1.5
  4. (D)0.01 and 0.05
Biodiversity & Conservation
Q135
Sacred groves are an example of
  1. (A)Ex situ conservation
  2. (B)In situ conservation
  3. (C)Cryopreservation
  4. (D)Seed bank conservation
Biodiversity & Conservation

Zoology

Section D  ·  45 questions  ·  180 marks
Q136
The water vascular system is a characteristic feature of the phylum
  1. (A)Mollusca
  2. (B)Arthropoda
  3. (C)Echinodermata
  4. (D)Annelida
Animal Kingdom
Q137
Flame cells are the excretory structures of
  1. (A)Platyhelminthes
  2. (B)Aschelminthes
  3. (C)Annelida
  4. (D)Porifera
Animal Kingdom
Q138
An open circulatory system is characteristic of
  1. (A)Annelida
  2. (B)Arthropoda
  3. (C)Chordata
  4. (D)Echinodermata
Animal Kingdom
Q139
The notochord persists throughout life along the entire length of the body in
  1. (A)Urochordata
  2. (B)Cephalochordata
  3. (C)Vertebrata
  4. (D)Hemichordata
Animal Kingdom
Q140
Areolar tissue is a type of
  1. (A)Dense regular connective tissue
  2. (B)Loose connective tissue
  3. (C)Specialised connective tissue
  4. (D)Epithelial tissue
Structural Organisation in Animals
Q141
The excretory structures of cockroach are
  1. (A)Green glands
  2. (B)Malpighian tubules
  3. (C)Nephridia
  4. (D)Flame cells
Structural Organisation in Animals
Q142
The oxygen dissociation curve of haemoglobin shifts to the right when
  1. (A)pCO₂ decreases
  2. (B)pH increases
  3. (C)Temperature falls
  4. (D)pCO₂ and H⁺ increase
Breathing & Exchange of Gases
Q143
The percentage of carbon dioxide transported in blood as bicarbonate is about
  1. (A)7%
  2. (B)20–25%
  3. (C)70%
  4. (D)97%
Breathing & Exchange of Gases
Q144
Vital capacity is equal to
  1. (A)TV + IRV
  2. (B)TV + IRV + ERV
  3. (C)TV + IRV + ERV + RV
  4. (D)IRV + ERV
Breathing & Exchange of Gases
Q145
The pacemaker of the human heart is the
  1. (A)AV node
  2. (B)SA node
  3. (C)Bundle of His
  4. (D)Purkinje fibres
Body Fluids & Circulation
Q146
During blood clotting, thrombin converts
  1. (A)Prothrombin to thrombin
  2. (B)Fibrinogen to fibrin
  3. (C)Fibrin to fibrinogen
  4. (D)Prothrombinase to thrombin
Body Fluids & Circulation
Q147
The first heart sound 'lubb' is produced by the closure of
  1. (A)Semilunar valves
  2. (B)Tricuspid valve only
  3. (C)Atrioventricular valves
  4. (D)Aortic valve only
Body Fluids & Circulation
Q148
Maximum reabsorption of glucose, amino acids and Na⁺ occurs in the
  1. (A)Proximal convoluted tubule
  2. (B)Loop of Henle
  3. (C)Distal convoluted tubule
  4. (D)Collecting duct
Excretory Products
Q149
Antidiuretic hormone acts mainly on the
  1. (A)Glomerulus
  2. (B)Proximal tubule
  3. (C)Distal tubule and collecting duct
  4. (D)Vasa recta
Excretory Products
Q150
Birds and reptiles are
  1. (A)Ammonotelic
  2. (B)Ureotelic
  3. (C)Uricotelic
  4. (D)Aminotelic
Excretory Products
Q151
During muscle contraction according to the sliding filament theory
  1. (A)The A band shortens
  2. (B)The I band shortens
  3. (C)Both A and I bands shorten
  4. (D)Only the A band widens
Locomotion & Movement
Q152
The total number of bones in the human axial skeleton is
  1. (A)80
  2. (B)126
  3. (C)206
  4. (D)32
Locomotion & Movement
Q153
Gout is caused by the accumulation in joints of
  1. (A)Calcium salts
  2. (B)Uric acid crystals
  3. (C)Lactic acid
  4. (D)Creatinine
Locomotion & Movement
Q154
The resting membrane potential of a neuron is maintained mainly by
  1. (A)Voltage-gated Ca²⁺ channels
  2. (B)The Na⁺/K⁺ pump moving 3 Na⁺ out and 2 K⁺ in
  3. (C)Passive influx of Na⁺
  4. (D)Chloride pumps
Neural Control & Coordination
Q155
Saltatory conduction of a nerve impulse occurs
  1. (A)In unmyelinated axons
  2. (B)From one node of Ranvier to the next
  3. (C)Only across synapses
  4. (D)In dendrites only
Neural Control & Coordination
Q156
The part of the brain responsible for maintaining posture and balance is the
  1. (A)Cerebrum
  2. (B)Cerebellum
  3. (C)Medulla oblongata
  4. (D)Hypothalamus
Neural Control & Coordination
Q157
Insulin is secreted by
  1. (A)Alpha cells of islets of Langerhans
  2. (B)Beta cells of islets of Langerhans
  3. (C)Acinar cells of the pancreas
  4. (D)Delta cells
Chemical Coordination
Q158
Oxytocin and vasopressin are
  1. (A)Synthesised by the anterior pituitary
  2. (B)Synthesised by the hypothalamus and released from the posterior pituitary
  3. (C)Secreted by the pineal gland
  4. (D)Secreted by the adrenal medulla
Chemical Coordination
Q159
Addison's disease results from
  1. (A)Hypersecretion of the adrenal cortex
  2. (B)Hyposecretion of the adrenal cortex
  3. (C)Hypersecretion of the thyroid
  4. (D)Hyposecretion of the pancreas
Chemical Coordination
Q160
Sertoli cells of the seminiferous tubules
  1. (A)Secrete testosterone
  2. (B)Provide nutrition to germ cells
  3. (C)Produce sperms directly
  4. (D)Secrete LH
Human Reproduction
Q161
Fertilisation in humans normally occurs in the
  1. (A)Uterus
  2. (B)Cervix
  3. (C)Ampullary–isthmic junction of the fallopian tube
  4. (D)Ovary
Human Reproduction
Q162
The corpus luteum is maintained during early pregnancy by
  1. (A)FSH
  2. (B)LH only
  3. (C)Human chorionic gonadotropin
  4. (D)Relaxin
Human Reproduction
Q163
The approximate number of primary oocytes present in each ovary at birth is
  1. (A)400
  2. (B)4000
  3. (C)1–2 million
  4. (D)60,000
Human Reproduction
Q164
Copper-releasing IUDs act mainly by
  1. (A)Preventing ovulation
  2. (B)Suppressing sperm motility and fertilising capacity
  3. (C)Blocking implantation only
  4. (D)Altering the menstrual cycle length
Reproductive Health
Q165
Medical termination of pregnancy is considered relatively safe up to
  1. (A)6 weeks
  2. (B)12 weeks
  3. (C)20 weeks
  4. (D)24 weeks
Reproductive Health
Q166
In the technique ZIFT, what is transferred into the fallopian tube?
  1. (A)An ovum
  2. (B)Sperm only
  3. (C)A zygote or early embryo up to the 8-blastomere stage
  4. (D)A blastocyst
Reproductive Health
Q167
Industrial melanism in Biston betularia is a classic demonstration of
  1. (A)Genetic drift
  2. (B)Natural selection
  3. (C)Mutation pressure
  4. (D)Founder effect
Evolution
Q168
In a population in Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium, the frequency of the recessive allele is 0.4. The frequency of heterozygotes is
  1. (A)0.16
  2. (B)0.36
  3. (C)0.48
  4. (D)0.24
Evolution
Q169
The wings of a butterfly and the wings of a bird are
  1. (A)Homologous and show divergent evolution
  2. (B)Analogous and show convergent evolution
  3. (C)Vestigial structures
  4. (D)Homologous and show convergent evolution
Evolution
Q170
The approximate cranial capacity of Homo habilis was
  1. (A)450 cc
  2. (B)650–800 cc
  3. (C)900 cc
  4. (D)1400 cc
Evolution
Q171
The recurring chill and high fever in malaria is caused by the release of
  1. (A)Sporozoites
  2. (B)Haemozoin
  3. (C)Merozoites into the liver
  4. (D)Gametocytes
Human Health & Disease
Q172
Which of the following diseases is caused by a virus?
  1. (A)Typhoid
  2. (B)Dengue
  3. (C)Malaria
  4. (D)Ringworm
Human Health & Disease
Q173
The basic structure of an antibody molecule is represented as
  1. (A)H₄L₂
  2. (B)H₂L₂
  3. (C)H₂L₄
  4. (D)HL
Human Health & Disease
Q174
HIV primarily attacks
  1. (A)B lymphocytes
  2. (B)Helper T lymphocytes
  3. (C)Erythrocytes
  4. (D)Neutrophils
Human Health & Disease
Q175
The restriction enzyme EcoRI recognises the palindromic sequence
  1. (A)GGATCC
  2. (B)GAATTC
  3. (C)AAGCTT
  4. (D)CTGCAG
Biotechnology – Principles
Q176
The enzyme used in PCR that withstands high temperature is
  1. (A)DNA ligase
  2. (B)Taq polymerase
  3. (C)Restriction endonuclease
  4. (D)Reverse transcriptase
Biotechnology – Principles
Q177
In a cloning vector, the 'ori' sequence
  1. (A)Allows selection of transformants
  2. (B)Controls the copy number of the linked DNA
  3. (C)Codes for antibiotic resistance
  4. (D)Cuts DNA at specific sites
Biotechnology – Principles
Q178
The Bt toxin protein exists as an inactive protoxin and becomes active
  1. (A)In the acidic stomach of vertebrates
  2. (B)In the alkaline gut of the insect
  3. (C)On exposure to sunlight
  4. (D)Inside the bacterial cell
Biotechnology – Applications
Q179
RNA interference has been used in tobacco plants to provide resistance against
  1. (A)Helicoverpa armigera
  2. (B)Meloidogyne incognita
  3. (C)Bacillus thuringiensis
  4. (D)Agrobacterium tumefaciens
Biotechnology – Applications
Q180
The first clinical gene therapy was given in 1990 to a girl suffering from
  1. (A)Cystic fibrosis
  2. (B)Adenosine deaminase deficiency
  3. (C)Sickle cell anaemia
  4. (D)Haemophilia
Biotechnology – Applications